Uttarakhand P.C.S. (J) (Pre.) Exam., 2009

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (J) (Pre.) Exam., 2009(Held on 7-3-2010)
PART–II
Law : Solved Paper

1. Under Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a Hindu can dispose of his interest in a Mitakshara Coparcenary property by—
(A) Will
(B) Gift
(C) Sale
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

2. Presumption that the younger survived the elder under Section 21 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is a—
(A) Presumption of fact
(B) Mixed presumption of fact and law
(C) Rebuttable presumption of law
(D) Irrebuttable presumption of law
Ans : (C)

3. Rule 2 under Section 10 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is a—
(A) Per capita rule
(B) Per stirpes
(C) Per stirpes per capita rule
(D) Rule of exclusion
Ans : (A)

4. A decree may be executed by—
(A) Tehsildar
(B) Collector
(C) District Judge
(D) Either by the court which passed it or to which it is sent
Ans : (D)

5. On which of the following maxim the doctrine of ‘Res Judicata’ is based ?
(A) Qui facit per alium facit per se
(B) Ex turpi causa non oritur actio
(C) Respondent superior
(D) Interest republica ut sit finish litium
Ans : (D)

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (J) (Pre.) Exam., 2009(Held on 7-3-2010)
PART–I
General Knowledge : Solved Paper

1. How many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India ?
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 22
Ans : (D)

2. Article 340 of the Indian Constitution deals with—
(A) Backward Classes Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) Finance Commission
Ans : (A)

3. In which year ‘Advocate’s Welfare Fund Act’ was enacted by Parliament of India ?
(A) 1999
(B) 2001
(C) 2003
(D) 2008
Ans : (B)

4. In which one of the following cases it has been held that prohibition on sale of eggs within municipal area of Rishikesh is not violative of Article 19(1)g of the Constitution ?
(A) B. R. Enterprise Vs. State of U.P.
(B) Sreeniwas General Traders Vs. State of Uttarakhand
(C) Om Prakash Vs. State of U.P.
(D) C. K. Jain Vs. State of Uttaranchal
Ans : (C)

5. ‘Right to Information’ is defined under—
(A) Section 2(f) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(B) Section 2(j) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(C) Section 4 of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(D) Section 2(b) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
Ans : (B)

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam., 2008(Held on 9-3-2008)Public Administration : Solved Paper

1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below :—
List-I (District)
(a) Udham Singh Nagar
(b) Tehri Garhwal
(c) Chamoli
(d) Champawat
List-II (Headquarters)
1. Champawat
2. Gopeshwar
3. Rudrapur
4. New Tehri
5. Bagheswar
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 2 5 3 4
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 4 3 5 1

2. The person for the office of the Chief Secretary in a State is chosen :
1. from among the I.A.S. Officers.
2. by a Selection Board
3. by the Chief Minister
4. by the Union Home Minister.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 3 only

3. The functions of the Chief Secretary include :
(A) to exercise control over the whole Secretariat
(B) to advise the Chief Minister on all matters
(C) to act as a spokesman of the State Government
(D) All of the above

4. Which one of the following statements about Audit in India is not correct ?
(A) It is a means of legislative control
(B) It is part of internal control over administration
(C) C and A.G. heads its organization
(D) C and A.G’s powers are determined by the Parliament

5. Who of the following has said about the Planning Commission “…… The Planning Commission has, in some measures, earned the reputation of being a parallel Cabinet and, sometimes, a super cabinet” ?
(A) Ashok Chandra
(B) D.R. Gadgil
(C) K. Santhanam
(D) 1st Administrative Reforms Commission

6. The C and AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of :
(A) Municipal institutions
(B) State Governments
(C) Government Companies
(D) Central Government

7. Functions of the National Development Council include :
1. considering important issues of national security.
2. prescribing guidelines for preparation of the national plan.
3. assessing the resources required for implementation of the plan.
4. recommending measures necessary for achieving plan objectives.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

8. The Committee on subordinate legislation ensures that :
(A) the rules and orders do not have any intention to impose taxes
(B) legislation does not involve any expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
(C) jurisdiction of the judiciary is not barred
(D) there is no delay in laying the legislation before the house

9. The Union Executive consists of the :
1. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
2. President of India
3. Central Secretariat
4. Vice President
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

10. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian Administration ?
(A) Legacy of the Past
(B) Welfare and Liberal Administration
(C) Despotic Administration
(D) Decentralized Administration

11. Disciplinary Officer for personnel of Group ‘C’ and ‘D’ in the Central Government is :
(A) Secretary of the concerned Department
(B) President of India
(C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(D) Minister of the concerned Department

12. Which of the following organization are under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India ?
1. Central Vigilance Commission
2. Central Administrative Tribunal
3. Department of official language
4. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel National Police Academy.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4

13. Consider the following two statements :
Assertion (A) : UPSC is an independent organization.
Reason (R) : UPSC is a constitutional body.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

14. Given below are two statements :
Assertion (A) : Five Year Plans in India are approved by the National Development Council.
Reason (R) : Each and every State Chief Minister is the member of the Standing Committee of the National Development Council.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

15. Being the Principal Law Officer of the Government of India, the Attorney General
1. gives advice to the President of India on all important legal matters.
2. attend meetings of the Parliament on important issues.
3. votes in the Lok Sabha on important legal matters.
4. represents the government in the courts on very important legal matters.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All of the above

16. Given below are different stages in problem solving :
1. Collection of relevant information
2. Identification of the problem.
3. Analysis of the information.
4. Development of alternatives.
5. Evaluation of choices.
Select the correct sequences of the above from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 2, 1, 3, 4 and 5
(C) 4, 5, 2, 3 and 1
(D) 4, 1, 5, 3 and 2

17. Formal Communication usually flows in :
(A) six directions
(B) four directions
(C) three directions
(D) nine directions

18. Which one of the following is not correct among the assumptions made by a Theory ‘Y’ leader ?
(A) Expenditure of energy is undesirable.
(B) Self-direction and self-control is desirable.
(C) Self-actualization is a motivating force.
(D) Working conditions conducive for acceptance of responsibilities are desirable.

19. The book ‘Prismatic Society Revisited’ has been authored by :
(A) Robert A. Dahl
(B) Robert A. Merton
(C) Fred W. Riggs
(D) G.M. Gaus

20. Arrange the various phases of evolution of Public Administration in chronological order :
1. Politics–Administration Dichotomy
2. Crises of Identify.
3. Search for Universal Principles.
4. Era of Challenge.
5. Public Policy Perspective.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 2
(C) 1, 3, 4, 2 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 3

21. Which of the following are the British legacies ?
1. Planning Commission.
2. District Administration.
3. Civil Services.
4. Ministerial Resposibility.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4

22. “Public Administration is detailed and systematic application of law.”
The above definition has been given by :
(A) L. D. White
(B) Luther Gullick
(C) E.N. Gladden
(D) Woodrow Wilson

23. Which of the following are the three aspects of Science of Public Administration discussed mainly in Kautilya’s Arthashastra ?
1. Principles of Public Administration
2. Principles of Financial Administration
3. Machinery of Government
4. Personnel Management
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

24. Who of the following described recruitment as the “Corner stone of whole personnel administration” ?
(A) Glenn O. Stahl
(B) L. D. White
(C) F. A. Nigro
(D) None of the above

25. The President of India addresses his letter of resignation, when wanting to do so, to the :
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Vice-President
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Prime Minister

26. The Mayor of a City Corporation in Uttarakhand :
(A) is elected directly by people
(B) is elected from among themselves by Corporators
(C) is elected by its Executive Committee
(D) is the nominee of the majority party in the Corporation

27. A Directorate :
1. is office of the executive head of a department.
2. functions directly under the Minister.
3. performs line functions.
4. also acts as a staff agency.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

28. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Central Secretariat is a think tank and treasure house of vital information.
Reason (R) : The Secretariat carries out a comprehensive and detailed scrutiny of every issue.
Select correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

29. The four bases of organization as identified by Luther Gullick are :
(A) Planning, Organising, Coordinating, Controlling
(B) Objective, People, Plan, Action
(C) Plead, Persuade, Order, Punish
(D) Purpose, Process, Persons, Place

30. ‘Authority’ and ‘Responsibility’ are governed by the :
(A) Principle of coincidence
(B) Principle of correspondence
(C) Principle of compulsion
(D) Principle of co-ordination

31. ‘Span of Control’ depends upon
1. centralized system of authority
2. type of work to be supervised
3. competence of the supervisor
4. techniques of supervision
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

32. Hierarchy :
1. facilitates delegation of authority
2. establishes superior–subordinate relationships
3. acts as a channel of communication
4. facilitates operation of gang plank
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

33. A formal organization :
1. is a structure of authority
2. is a division of functions
3. consists of individuals
4. reflects social and psychological relationships
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

34. Given below are two statements :
Assertion (A) : The principle of ‘Unity of Command’ emphasizes upon one master.
Reason (R) : In complex government organizations ‘Unity of Command’ becomes easy. In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

35. Decentralization :
1. improves administrative efficiency
2. reduces stress of responsibilities at the headquarter.
3. provides for involvement of insiders in organizational functioning.
4. is responsible for cost-escalation.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

36. The traditional theory of Authority has been opposed by :
1. Max Weber
2. C.I. Bernard
3. H. Simon
4. Mooney and Reiley
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

37. The ‘Line’ agencies :
1. perform functions according to organizational objectives.
2. have authority to take decisions and enforce them.
3. involve insiders of the organization
4. keep outsiders away from the system.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

38. Which of the following statements about ‘Delegation of authority’ are correct ?
1. It should be made to an individual.
2. It should be properly planned.
3. It should be backed by adequate resources.
4. It can be conditional.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

39. Human Relations Theory of Organization focusses on the :
1. individual
2. physical structure
3. functional structure
4. social relationships
5. spirit of participation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 4 and 5
(D) 2, 3, 4 and 5

40. Weber’s bureaucratic model has been characterised by his critics as :
1. a machine theory
2. a closed system model
3. suitable for changing environment
4. suitable for creative jobs
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

41. Which of the following types of leadership were delineated by Max-Weber ?
1. Charismatic
2. Traditional
3. Religious
4. Legal-rational
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

42. Which one of the following is not an intrinsic factor of job satisfaction as per the Hygiene Theory of Motivation ?
(A) Achievement
(B) Advancement
(C) Opportunities for growth
(D) Job Security

43. Fredrick Herzbgerg’s Theory of Motivation has listed some elements which are related to job content. Their number is :
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10

44. Factors responsible for bounded rationality include :
1. dynamic nature of objectives
2. imperfect information
3. imcompetence for analysis
4. time constraints
5. personal values
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 4 and 5

45. Factors taken into consideration while using ‘motivation’ as a function of management include :
1. goal
2. physiological deficiency
3. psychological need
4. technique to be used
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

46. “A communication that cannot be understood can have no authority.” The above statement is attributed
to :
(A) Ordway Tead
(B) C.I. Bernard
(C) Millet
(D) Peter Drucker

47. The aspects of organizational communication include :
1. internal communication
2. external communication
3. inter-personal communication
4. intra-personal communication
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

48. Which one of the following is not a stage in Simon’s model of decision making ?
(A) Intelligence
(B) Design
(C) Choice
(D) Participation

49. Which one of the following as qualities of leadership, as mentioned by Barnard is correct ?
(A) Vitality and Endurance
(B) Decisiveness
(C) Persuasiveness and Responsibility
(D) All of the above

50. Which one of the following statements about Decision-making is not correct ?
(A) Every decision is based upon two premises
(B) A factual premise cannot be disproved
(C) A value premise can be tested
(D) Ends and means have their importance

51. Theory ‘Y’ is connected with :
(A) Democratic leadership style
(B) Autocratic leadership style
(C) Laissez-faire leadership style
(D) None of the above

52. Who of the following developed Contingency Theory of Leadership ?
(A) Fred E. Feidler
(B) Likert
(C) Simon
(D) Robert Dahl

53. Robert T. Goelembioski has considered as transitional incident to :
(A) Private Administration
(B) Public Administration
(C) Neo Public Administration
(D) New Public Administration

54. Who of the following did not criticise Politics-administration dichotomy of Woodrow Wilson ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Paul H. Appleby
(C) Marshall E. Dimock
(D) Nicholas Henry

55. Which one of the following statements is correct about New Public Administration ?
(A) It believes in Science of Public Administration
(B) It focusses on Social Administration
(C) It gives priority to the study of structural aspect of organization
(D) It believes in collective decision-making

56. Third phase (1938–1947) of the development of Public Administration is marked by :
1. emphasis on the practical study of Public Administration.
2. emphasis on human behaviour in an organization.
3. doubt regarding non-universality of the principles of Public Administration.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) only 3
(D) 2 and 3

57. Who of the following differentiated Politics and Administration by saying that ‘Politics has to do policies or expression of the State will’ and ‘Administration has to do with the execution of the policies’ ?
(A) Peter Self
(B) Woodrow Wilson
(C) Frank Goodnow
(D) Dwight Waldo

58. New Public Administration lays emphasis on :
(A) relevance, values, democracy and change
(B) relevance, values, equity and change
(C) relevance, values, efficiency and change
(D) relevance, efficiency, equity and change

59. ‘Public Administration is the Art and Science of Management as applied to affairs of the State.’ Who of the following said this ?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) L.D. White
(C) Frank Marini
(D) Dwight Waldo

60. “Public Administration is detailed and systematic execution of law.” Who of the following has said this ?
(A) L.D. White
(B) Luther Gullick
(C) E.N. Gladden
(D) Woodrow Wilson

61. About the significance of Public Administration who of the following said “The Administrative process is universal” ?
(A) Ordway Tead
(B) Henri Fayol
(C) H. Finer
(D) D. Waldo

62. “Public Administration is characterized by red-tape while Private Administration is free from it.” The statement was made by :
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Paul H. Appleby
(C) Peter Drucker
(D) Josia Stamp

63. The Minnobrook Conference held in 1988 laid emphasis on :
1. Leadership
2. Constitutional and Legal perspective
3. Policy perspective
4. Social equity and change
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

64. The Conference on New Public Administration in 1960s was held under the patronage of :
(A) Robert T. Golembiewaski
(B) Frank Marini
(C) Fredrickson
(D) Dwight Waldo

65. Consider the following :
Assertion (A) : Comparative Public Administration is crosscultural and cross-national in character.
Reason (R) : Its goal became unattainable.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
Correct :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

66. Ecological approach undertakes studies of :
1. dynamics of interaction
2. political environment
3. social realities
4. influence of administrative system
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

67. Which of the following decisionmaking approach is usually advocated by the Policy makers for urban community development in India ?
(A) Mixed approach
(B) Public choice approach
(C) Contingency approach
(D) Participative approach

68. Who of the following scholar/scholars point out that bureaucratic responsibility has to be seen in terms of accountability and ethical behaviour ?
(A) Fesler and Kettle
(B) Rosen
(C) Romzek and Dubnick
(D) Mohit Bhattacharya

69. Civil Servants are trained through :
1. foundation courses
2. on the job programmes
3. field exposures
4. refresher programmes
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

70. The Joint Consultative Machinery in India was established on the recommendation of :
(A) First Pay Commission
(B) Second Pay Commission
(C) Third Pay Commission
(D) Fourth Pay Commission

71. Which one of the following reports laid down the traditional concept of Civil Service neutrality in Britain ?
(A) Masterman Committee Report
(B) Hoover Commission Report
(C) Northcote-Trevelyan Report
(D) Fulton Committee Report

72. The country which practices position classification in Civil Service is :
(A) U.K.
(B) U.S.A.
(C) France
(D) Germany

73. The final work of the Union Public Service Commission in recruitment process is :
(A) Selection
(B) Appointment
(C) Certification
(D) Placement

74. Which one of the following countries permits the right to strike to Civil Servants ?
(A) U.K.
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) U.S.A.

75. Which one of the following illustrates the nature of traditional concept of Civil Service Neutrality ?
(A) Committed
(B) Positive minded
(C) Non-Partisan
(D) Impartial

76. Which one of the following Committee/Commission was associated during British rule with the Civil Services in India ?
(A) Wheeler Commission
(B) Maxwell Committee
(C) Risley Commission
(D) Islington Commission

77. Which of the following statements about Neutrality of Civil Service are correct ?
1. The Civil servants should remain non-political.
2. It developed as a tradition in the U.S.A.
3. The demand for committed bureaucracy has created confusion.
4. The developing countries bureaucracy remained depoliticised.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

78. The advantages of rank classification include :
1. it introduces an element of flexibility.
2. it is more suitable for generalist cadre.
3. it helps in applying the principle of equal pay for equal work.
4. it facilitates matching job requirements with incumbents’s qualifications.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

79. Which one of the following about position classification is not correct ?
(A) It is also known as duties classification.
(B) It is concerned with the person holding the position.
(C) Position acts as the basic unit.
(D) It helps in developing common practices.

80. The correct sequence of the process adopted in recruitment is :
(A) Advertisement, Selection, Appointment, Probation
(B) Advertisement, Selection, Probation, Training.
(C) Advertisement, Appointment, Training, Probation.
(D) Advertisement, Selection, Posting, Probation.

81. The Separation of Accounts and Audit took place in India in the year :
(A) 1950
(B) 1961
(C) 1976
(D) 1990

82. Which one of the following about Accounts is not correct ?
(A) They are statements of facts relating to money.
(B) They are recored to show transactions.
(C) They reveal the financial condition of the organisation.
(D) The cannot be manipulated.

83. Preparation of performance budget was introduced in India on the recommendation of :
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Appleby Report
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(D) Administrative Reforms Commission

84. To enhance legislative literacy and administrative responsibility, the budget system should accept :
(A) Zero Based Budgeting
(B) P.P.B.S.
(C) Performance Budgeting
(D) Professional Scrutiny by experts

85. Which one of the following statements about Budget is not correct ?
(A) It is a policy document
(B) It is merely a tool of resource mobilisation
(C) It is a tool of planning and control
(D) It is a statement of income and expenditure

86. Which one of the following is not a part of the Execution of Budget ?
(A) Release of grants
(B) Feedback on expenditure
(C) Audit of expenditure
(D) Reappropriation, when required

87. Audit :
1. is a means of legislative control.
2. is usually regulatory in nature.
3. is concerned with the propriety of expenditure.
4. can be performance related.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

88. The stages involved in the enactment of the Budget include :
1. Presentation
2. Voting on demands for grants
3. General discussion
4. Passing of Financial Bills
5. Passing of Appropriation Bill
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above five stages ?
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 1, 3, 2, 5 and 4
(C) 1, 3, 4, 2 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 5, 4 and 3

89. Non-votable items of expenditure, by the Parliament, include :
1. emoluments and allowances of the President.
2. emoluments and allowances of Vice-President.
3. salary and allowances of C and A.G.
4. salary and allowances of the Chief Vigilance Commissioner Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

90. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year :
(A) 1921
(B) 1922
(C) 1925
(D) 1926

91. In the process of passing the budget, which one of the following is not in the purview of the Legislature?
(A) Give assent to the demand
(B) Reduce the demand
(C) Refuse the demand
(D) Increase and demand

92. The studies of Comparative Public Administration came to decline because :
(A) they were involved in trivialities
(B) they exhibited arrogance of developed countries
(C) they indulged in comparison of cultures
(D) they were over shadowed by Fred Riggs

93. Which one of the following is not included in the types of leadership, as distinguished by M.P. Follett ?
(A) Leadership of position
(B) Leadership of personality
(C) Leadership of learning
(D) Leadership of function

94. The Comparative Administration Group (CAG) in U.S.A. was formed in the year :
(A) 1959
(B) 1960
(C) 1961
(D) 1962

95. Advantages of ‘Right to Information’ as a means of Citizens’ control over administration include :
1. Administration becomes more accountable to people.
2. It increases the gap between administration and people.
3. It reduces chances of abuse of authority.
4. It reduces scope for corruption in administration.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

96. Who of the following said :
‘I always consider the question time in the House is one of the finest examples of Democracy ?’
(A) E. Attlee
(B) W. Wilson
(C) Churchill
(D) Chamberlin

97. Which one of the following is the tool of Executive Control over Public Administration ?
(A) Civil Service Code
(B) Budget
(C) Hierarchical system
(D) All of the above

98. The subject of ‘Ensuring transparency and Right to Information’ was included in the agenda of the Chief Ministers’ Conference in the year :
(A) 1996
(B) 1997
(C) 1998
(D) 2002

99. The mechanisms for citizen’s control over administration include :
1. Ombudsman system
2. Central Vigilance Commission
3. General elections
4. Pressure Groups
5. Right to Information
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(D) 2, 3, 4 and 5

100. Administrative organisations are mainly responsible to :
1. Legislature
2. Judiciary
3. Citizens
4. Media
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4

101. Which one of the following is the example of executive control over administration ?
(A) Rules of financial transactions framed by Finance ministry for agencies responsible for expenditure
(B) Issue of ordinance by the President of India
(C) Audit by C and G
(D) Approval of Budget proposals by the President of India.

102. Which one of the following is under the control of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions ?
(A) National Academy of Administration, Mussoorie
(B) Central Vigilance Commission
(C) Joint Consultative Machinery
(D) All the above

103. What is the number of membership including President of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation of Parliament ?
(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 22
(D) 30

104. The rules and regulations framed by the administrative authorities can be declared illegal by the courts :
(A) If they violate the limitation inherent in the parent Act
(B) If they violate the provisions of the constitution
(C) If the parent Act violates the provisions of the constitution
(D) In all above conditions

105. The corruption has increased manifold because :
1. There is a close nexus among the politicians, bureaucrates and criminals.
2. The cost of getting scotfree is very high.
3. Reduced fear of punishment.
4. Involvement of higher officials in the corruption.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the above

106. The tools of legislative control over administration are :
1. debates and discussions in the House.
2. censure motion against the government.
3. no confidence motion against the government.
4. consideration and passage of budget by the House.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All of the above

107. Which one of the following statements about the Cabinet Secretary is not correct ?
(A) He is head of the Civil Service
(B) He interacts directly with the bureaucracy in the ministries
(C) He acts as a deity in the annual conference of Chief Secretaries
(D) He presides over the meeting of Secretaries in the Central Government

108. Under the Indian Constitution, the CAG is :
(A) responsible only to the Executive head
(B) responsible to both Parliament and Executive
(C) responsible only to Parliament
(D) independent of both Parliament and the Executive

109. Which of the following is/are not mentioned in the Constitution of India ?
1. Council of Ministers
2. Collective responsibility
3. Resignation of Ministers
4. Office of the Deputy Prime Minister
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 3

110. Assessment of the implementation of national plan from time to time is the function of :
(A) Programme Evaluation Organisation
(B) National Sample Survey Organisation
(C) Union Finance Commission
(D) Union Ministry of Programme Implementation

111. A large number of cases against officials in the courts pertain to :
(A) error of procedure
(B) lack of jurisdiction
(C) error of facts
(D) abuse of discretion

112. Which of the following organization in the centre basically operate as staff agencies ?
1. Ministry of Finance
2. Union Public Service Commission
3. Directorate General of supplies and Disposal
4. Planning Commission of India.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4

113. Comptroller and Auditor General of India :
1. is appointed by the President
2. submits his report to the Parliament
3. controls the financial system of the country
4. upholds the Constitution in respect of financial administration
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

114. Which of the following about President of India are correct ?
1. He/She should not be a member of the Parliament.
2. He/She is a constituent part of Parliament.
3. He/She should be eligible for election as a Lok Sabha member.
4. He/She is directly elected by the people.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

115. The Civil Service in India :
1. is governed by the norm of anonymity.
2. is not accountable to the Parliament.
3. is protected by the Minister concerned in all kinds of acts.
4. remains accountable to the Minister concerned.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four

116. The relationship between political executive and permanent executive is based on :
(A) ability of Minister
(B) capability of Civil Servant
(C) mutual respect and confidence between Ministers and Civil Servants
(D) All of the above

117. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A) : The Constitution authorises the Parliament to create a new All-India Service.
Reason (R) : Rajya Sabha takes a decision on the basis of recommendation of Lok Sabha in this regard.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

118. The system of open competition as the method of recruitment to Indian Civil Services was introduced
by the :
(A) Charter Act of 1853
(B) Charter Act of 1833
(C) Regulatory Act of 1773
(D) Charter Act of 1754

119. Which of the following departments in the Uttarakhand Government have a Directorate under it ?
1. Education
2. Health
3. Home
4. Agriculture
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

120. The Police force of a district maintains law and order under the general supervision of :
(A) Home Minister of the State
(B) Law Minister of the State
(C) Collector and Magistrate of the District
(D) S.P. of the district

Answers :
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (D)
6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (*) All the options given in the question are correct. The committee on subordinate legislation performs all the four function. It appears that the question is incomplete as the ‘codes’ are not given below.
9. (A) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (C)
16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (C) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (B)
26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (A) 29. (D) 30. (B) 31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (A)
36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (A) 41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (C)
46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (C) 51. (A) 52. (A) 53. (D) 54. (A) 55. (B)
56. (D) 57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (D) 65. (B)
66. (B) 67. (D) 68. (D) 69. (D) 70. (B) 71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D)
76. (D) 77. (B) 78. (A) 79. (B) 80. (A) 81. (C) 82. (D) 83. (D) 84. (C) 85. (B)
86. (C) 87. (D) 88. (B) 89. (B) 90. (A) 91. (D) 92. (B) 93. (C) 94. (B) 95. (C)
96. (A) 97. (A) 98. (B) 99. (C) 100. (A) 101. (A) 102. (A) 103. (B) 104. (D) 105. (C)
106. (D) 107. (B) 108. (C) 109. (C) 110. (A) 111. (D) 112. (C) 113. (C) 114. (B) 115. (C)
116. (C) 117. (C) 118. (A) 119. (D) 120. (C)

2008 P.C.S. Uttarakhand(Pre.) Exam., 2006 : ( General Studies ) Question paper

1. On what date Benazir Bhutto was assassinated ?
(A) December 23, 2007
(B) December 26, 2007
(C) December 27, 2007
(D) December 31, 2007

2. When and where Panchayati Raj System in India was introduced ?
(A) July 5, 1957; Faizabad (U.P.)
(B) October 2, 1959; Nagor (Rajasthan)
(C) November 14, 1959; Ahmedabad (Gujarat)
(D) December 3, 1960; Bhopal (M.P.)

3. Indian Oil Cup Third-Test Match was played at Bangalore from December 8 to December 12, 2007. Saurav Ganguli, scored 239 in First innings. How many balls did he play ?
(A) 304
(B) 351
(C) 361
(D) 370

4. Who is the Nepal Army Chief to visit India from December 12, 2007 ?
(A) General R. M. Kotwal
(B) General P.C. Bohra
(C) General R.C. Gyawali
(D) General A.N. Thapa

5. Name the writer of the book ‘Romancing with Life’, an Autobiography—
(A) Devanand
(B) Kalpana Chawla
(C) Amitabh Bachchan
(D) Anupam Kher

6. Who has been appointed the 23rd Chief of Indian Army ?
(A) General J. J. Singh
(B) General Deepak Kapoor
(C) General J. N. Goswami
(D) Admiral Suresh Mehta

7. When was Devanand, the famous cine-actor was awarded the ‘Dada Saheb Falke’ Puraskar ?
(A) 2002
(B) 2003
(C) 2004
(D) 2007

8. Which district of Uttarakhand has the largest area ?
(A) Nainital
(B) Dehradun
(C) Almora
(D) Uttar Kashi

9. Tharu Scheduled Tribes are mostly the inhabitants of—
(A) Dehradun
(B) Udhamsingh Nagar
(C) Pithoragarh
(D) Chamoli

10. When was Joshimath-Auli Ropeway started ?
(A) September, 1992
(B) September, 1993
(C) October, 1993
(D) November, 1994

11. Albert Einstein was proficient in playing which musical instrument ?
(A) Guitar
(B) Flute
(C) Violin
(D) Sitar

12. Which U.N. Secretary General served for the longest period ?
(A) Trygve Lie
(B) Kurt Waldhiem
(C) Xavier Peres De Culliar
(D) U. Thant

13. Who among the following has not been awarded with ‘Bharat Ratna’ ?
(A) J. R. D. Tata
(B) Acharya Narendra Dev
(C) Satyajeet Ray
(D) C. Subramaniam

14. On what date Pakistan was suspended from Commonwealth ?
(A) November 18, 2007
(B) November 19, 2007
(C) November 20, 2007
(D) November 23, 2007

15. Who has been elected as the Secretary General of Commonwealth in 2007 ?
(A) Kamlesh Sharma
(B) Mohan Kaul
(C) Michael Swandro
(D) Anant Singh

16. Who has been awarded with the 2006 Indira Gandhi Puraskar on November 19, 2007 ?
(A) Prof. Madam Bangari Mathai
(B) Meena Barot
(C) Kalpana Chawla
(D) R. N. Swami

17. Who has been appointed as the Chairman of the 13th Finance Commission on November 14, 2007 ?
(A) Sumit Bose
(B) Anant Singh
(C) Dr. Vijaya N. Kelkar
(D) Sam Pitroda

18. How many districts are in Uttarakhand ?
(A) 15
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 10

19. Which one of the following districts of Uttarakhand has lowest percentage of literacy in the province ?
(A) Chamoli
(B) Dehradun
(C) Nainital
(D) Haridwar

20. Which one of the following Scheduled Tribes is not found in Uttarakhand ?
(A) Bhoksa
(B) Bhotia
(C) Raji
(D) Kharwar

21. Which one of the following Hindu Festivals was celebrated as day of mourning by Tharu Scheduled Tribes ?
(A) Holi
(B) Deepawali
(C) Nag Panchami
(D) Dushera

22. Name the Indian State which has the maximum percentage of educated unemployed persons ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Gujarat

23. Which of the following was capital of Raja Ranjeet Singh of Punjab ?
(A) Amritsar
(B) Lahore
(C) Rawal Pindi
(D) Peshawar

24. Coins of which Muslim ruler been image of Devi Lakshmi ?
(A) Mohammed Gori
(B) Allauddin Khilji
(C) Akbar
(D) None of the above

25. Which of the Indian States has the longest sea coast ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala

26. On which date World Environment Day is observed ?
(A) June 5
(B) October 2
(C) November 10
(D) November 19

27. Which Article of Indian Constitution enumerates Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens ?
(A) Article 50–A
(B) Article 50–B
(C) Article 51–A
(D) Article 51–B

28. Which of the following States in India is the smallest in terms of population ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Orissa

29. Which of the following districts of Uttarakhand has the highest population of Scheduled Tribes ?
(A) Nainital
(B) Almora
(C) Udhamsingh Nagar
(D) Champawat

30. The rate of melting of Himalayan glaciers is—
(A) Lowest in the world
(B) Highest in the world
(C) Same as of the glaciers of other parts of the world
(D) No information available about the melting rate of Himalayan glaciers

31. The largest glacier of Uttarakhand is—
(A) Milam
(B) Kafani
(C) Gangotri
(D) Sunderdhunga

32. The Bhagirathi river originates from—
(A) Gomukh
(B) Gangotri
(C) Tapovan
(D) Vishnu Prayag

33. Green House Effect means—
(A) Increase in atmospheric temperature due to concentration of green house gases in the atmosphere
(B) Growing vegetables and flowers in increased temperature
(C) Growing food crops in glass houses
(D) None of the above

34. Which of the following is not the impact of deforestation in India ?
(A) Drying of water sources in Himalaya
(B) Loss of bio-diversity
(C) Urbanization
(D) Soil erosion

35. Which of the following wildlife protected areas in Uttarakhand is a Tiger reserve ?
(A) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
(B) Rajaji National Park
(C) Corbett National Park
(D) Binsar Wildlife Sanctuary

36. Wildlife Institute of India is located at—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Shimla
(C) Dehradun
(D) Bhopal

37. Which of the following river does not have its source in glaciers ?
(A) Yamuna
(B) Alaknanda
(C) Kosi
(D) Mandakini

38. Which of the following Urban Centres in India is one of 10 largest cities of the world in terms of population ?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Chennai
(C) Greater Mumbai
(D) New Delhi

39. Which of the following is not an effect of population growth in India ?
(A) Increase in flood
(B) Increase in pollution
(C) Reduction in cultivable land
(D) Increase in wildlife

40. According to report of 1999-2000 of Planning Commission which State was found having highest percentage of people living below poverty line ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh

41. The percentage of agricultural land is very high in all the following States except—
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Sikkim

42. In which of the following parts of India are the largest reserves of mineral resources ?
(A) West
(B) South
(C) North
(D) South East

43. Which one of the following has the largest harbour in the world ?
(A) Tokyo
(B) Mumbai
(C) Rottardam
(D) London

44. With which drainage system or the main river Mandakini is associated ?
(A) Alaknanda
(B) Bhagirathi
(C) Yamuna
(D) Dhauli Ganga

45. Which of the following natural disasters may be the most devastating effect in Uttarakhand ?
(A) Earthquake
(B) Landslide
(C) Avalanche
(D) Flood

46. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is located in—
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Orissa

47. The Yellow Stone National Park is located in—
(A) Mexico
(B) South Africa
(C) Canada
(D) U.S.A.

48. Which of the following is correct about Union Public Service Commission of India ?
(A) It inspects the State Public Service Commission
(B) It has nothing to do with State Public Service Commission
(C) All its members are taken from State Public Service Commission
(D) It sends annual guidelines to State Public Service Commissions

49. Which of the following is not the effect of urbanization in mountainous region of Uttarakhand ?
(A) Increase in natural disasters
(B) Increase in wildlife
(C) Increase in water pollution
(D) Reduction of biodiversity

50. Which of the following is not a reason for loss of bio-diversity in Uttarakhand ?
(A) Expansion of Roads
(B) Urbanization
(C) Afforestation of barren land
(D) Extension of Agriculture

51. Most of the wildlife protected areas in India are surrounded by—
(A) Dense forests
(B) Rivers and lakes
(C) Human settlements
(D) Mountains and hills

52. Which of the following countries, Alaska belongs to ?
(A) Green Land
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) U.K.

53. In which of the following Continents the Andes Mountain Range is located ?
(A) Australia
(B) Europe
(C) South America
(D) Asia

54. The Alps mountain range is not a part of which of the following countries ?
(A) France
(B) Germany
(C) Austria
(D) England

55. Which of the following rivers does not drain into Bay of Bengal ?
(A) Mahanadi
(B) Krishna
(C) Tapti
(D) Godavari

56. Mexico country is located in—
(A) South America Continent
(B) North America Continent
(C) Africa Continent
(D) Europe Continent

57. Which of the following countries of South Asia is the smallest in terms of area ?
(A) Maldives
(B) Bhutan
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Bangla Desh

58. The general direction of flow of summer monsoon in India is—
(A) From South to North
(B) From South West to South East
(C) From South East to South West
(D) From South West to North East

59. In which of the following countries of Asia, the birth rate is the lowest ?
(A) Nepal
(B) Bhutan
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Maldives

60. The highest density of population in India is associated with—
(A) Industrialized areas
(B) Coastal plains
(C) Low hills
(D) Areas with plain topography, fertile soils and availability of water

61. The Lesser Himalaya is located between—
(A) Trans Himalaya and Great Himalaya
(B) Siwaliks and Great Himalaya
(C) Trans Himalaya and Siwaliks
(D) Siwaliks and Outer Himalaya

62. The headquarters of Survey of India is located in—
(A) Chandigarh
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Dehradun
(D) New Delhi

63. Carbon dating is used to determine the age of—
(A) Fossils
(B) Plants
(C) Rocks
(D) None of the above

64. The function of haemoglobin in body is—
(A) Transport of Oxygen
(B) Destruction of Bacteria
(C) Prevention of Anaemia
(D) Utilisation of Iron

65. What is measured in cusecs ?
(A) Purity of water
(B) Depth of water
(C) Flow of water
(D) Quality of water

66. What is the mineral composition of diamond ?
(A) Carbon
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Nickel
(D) Zinc

67. The stars receive their energy from which of the following ?
(A) Nuclear fusion
(B) Nuclear fission
(C) Chemical reaction
(D) Gravitational pull

68. Radioactive element which has been found to have large reserves in India is—
(A) Plutonium
(B) Radium
(C) Thorium
(D) Uranium

69. Azolla gives a good bio-fertilizer when mixed with—
(A) Blue green algae
(B) Bone meal
(C) Cow dung
(D) Urea

70. Ozone layer of atmosphere absorbs—
(A) Cosmic rays
(B) Infra red rays
(C) Ultraviolet rays
(D) All radiations

71. The fuel used in Fast Breeder Test Reactor at Kalpakkam is—
(A) Enriched Uranium
(B) Thorium
(C) Plutonium
(D) Tungsten

2. Chemical energy is converted into Electrical energy by—
(A) Electrolysis
(B) Photosynthesis
(C) Respiration
(D) Transpiration

73. In integrated circuit the chip of semiconductor used is made up of—
(A) Beryllium
(B) Carbon
(C) Silicon
(D) Zircon

74. When kidneys fail to function, there is accumulation of—
(A) Fats in the body
(B) Proteins in the body
(C) Sugar in the blood
(D) Nitrgoenous waste products in the blood

75. Chemical composition of pearl is—
(A) Calcium Carbonate
(B) Calcium Carbonate and Magnesium Carbonate
(C) Calcium Chloride
(D) Calcium Sulphate

76. Which of the following disease is hereditary ?
(A) Haemophillia
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Cancer
(D) Dysentery

77. Acid rain is caused by pollution of environment by—
(A) Carbon monoxide and Carbon dioxide
(B) Carbon dioxide and Nitrogen
(C) Ozone and Carbon dioxide
(D) Nitrous oxide and Sulphur dioxide

78. Which of the following proteins is found in milk ?
(A) Aglutinin
(B) Casein
(C) Myosin
(D) Haemoglobin

79. In the Einstein equation E = mc2, c denotes—
(A) Velocity of sound
(B) Velocity of light
(C) Wavelength of light
(D) A constant factor

80. Which of the following is recently evolved in Genetic Engineering ?
(A) Gene analysis
(B) Gene mapping
(C) Gene splicing
(D) Gene synthesis

81. The newly discovered high temperature super conductors are—
(A) Pure rare earth metals
(B) Mctal alloys
(C) Ceramic oxides
(D) Inorganic polymers

82. Blood grouping was discovered by—
(A) Landsteriner
(B) William Harvey
(C) Robert Koch
(D) Louis Pasteur

83. Jaundice affects the—
(A) Pancreas
(B) Stomach
(C) Liver
(D) Intestine

84. Who was the First Chairman of Planning Commission of India ?
(A) M. Viswesvarya
(B) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) P.C. Mahalanobis
(D) John Mathai

85. Which of the following is main ingredients in cement ?
(A) Gypsum
(B) Limestone
(C) Ash
(D) Clay

86. Who presides over the National Development Council of India ?
(A) Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Finance Minister of India
(D) Vice President of India

87. Who is the first person of Indian origin to win the ‘Booker Prize’ ?
(A) Arundhati Roy
(B) Salman Rushdie
(C) V. S. Naipaul
(D) Jhumpa Lahiri

88. Which was the first Indian Private Sector Company to find place in Global 500 list of ‘Fortune Magazine’ ?
(A) Wipro
(B) Infosys
(C) TCS
(D) Reliance Industries Ltd.

89. The highest population growth ratio during 1991-2001 has been recorded in—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Nagaland
(C) Manipur
(D) Uttarakhand

90. Bharat Nirman Yojana is related to—
(A) Infrastructure development
(B) Foodgrain production selfsufficiency
(C) Family welfare programme
(D) None of the above

91. Narasimhan Committee is related to—
(A) Bank Sector Reform
(B) Heavy Industry Development
(C) Insurance Sector Reform
(D) (A) and (C) are correct

92. Bhatnagar award is given for contribution in which of the following field ?
(A) Music
(B) Archaeology
(C) Science
(D) Social work

93. Most of the explosions in mines occur due to the mixing of which of the following ?
(A) Carbon dioxide with methane
(B) Methane with air
(C) Oxygen with acetylene
(D) Hydrogen with oxygen

94. For getting which of the following metal Bauxite is a mineral ore ?
(A) Iron
(B) Copper
(C) Aluminium
(D) Silver

95. Which of the following award has been given to Col. Vishwanath Venugopal, Capt. Harshan R and Naib Subedar Chunnilal for fighting terrorists in Jammu and Kashmir ?
(A) Shaurya Chakra
(B) Veer Chakra
(C) Kirti Chakra
(D) Ashok Chakra

96. Which of the following country is the largest producer of atomic mineral in the World ?
(A) Russia
(B) China
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Canada

97. In 2007 Kevin Rudd has been elected as Prime Minister of which of the following country ?
(A) France
(B) Austria
(C) Australia
(D) None of the above is correct

98. Who is author of the book ‘Inside IB & RAW : The Rolling Stone that Gathered Morse’ ?
(A) R. N. Kau
(B) K. Shankaran Nair
(C) R. B. Sahi
(D) None of the above

99. With which of the following Shashi Tharoor has been associated ?
(A) NASA
(B) International Olympic Committee
(C) United Nations Organisation
(D) None of the above

100. On which of the following date, the name of Uttaranchal State was changed to Uttarakhand ?
(A) November 9, 2006
(B) February 1, 2007
(C) January 1, 2007
(D) November 9, 2007

101. Where was the 6th Indo-Asean Conference held ?
(A) Islamabad
(B) Singapore
(C) Kathmandu
(D) New Delhi

102. Who was the first recipient woman of Vyas Samman ?
(A) Chitra Mudgal
(B) Prabha Khetan
(C) Malti Joshi
(D) Mannu Bhandari

103. Which country has the largest number of Post Offices ?
(A) India
(B) Japan
(C) China
(D) France

104. Which city is known as the Forbidden City ?
(A) Shanghai
(B) San Francisco
(C) New York
(D) Lhasa

105. Who wrote the Book ‘A Passage to India’ ?
(A) V. S. Naipaul
(B) Pt. J. L. Nehru
(C) E. M. Foster
(D) Mulk Raj Anand

106. World Population Day is celebrated on—
(A) July 11
(B) August 2
(C) November 14
(D) November 19

107. The earliest evidence of man in India is found in—
(A) Nilgiri Hills
(B) Shiwalik Hills
(C) Nallamala Hills
(D) Narmada Valley

108. Who composed the Gayatri Mantra ?
(A) Vasishtha
(B) Vishwamitra
(C) Indra
(D) Parikshit

109. Otto Hahn discovered atom bomb by the principle of—
(A) Uranium fission
(B) Nuclear fission
(C) Alpha radiation
(D) Gamma radiation

110. When a person becomes older, his blood pressure generally—
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Remains the same
(D) Varies widely

111. Which of the following aerial photographs are suitable for wildlife management in Corbett and Rajaji National Park ?
(A) Small scale photographs
(B) Medium scale photographs
(C) Large scale photographs
(D) Extra large scale photographs

112. Which of the following is not a hardware ?
(A) Printer
(B) Keyboard
(C) Mouse
(D) Operating system

113. The fourth dimension in Physics was introduced by—
(A) Newton
(B) Einstein
(C) Galileo
(D) Neil Bohr

114. The hormone insulin which is used in treating diabetes was discovered by—
(A) F. G. Banting
(B) Schleiden and Schwann
(C) Brown
(D) Hooke

115. In Pathology excess of white corpuscles in the blood is called—
(A) Anoxia
(B) Leukaemia
(C) Anaemia
(D) Septicemia

116. Doctors recommend that we should cook our food in oil rather than in Vanasapti ghee because—
(A) Oil contains unsaturated fats
(B) Oil contains saturated fats
(C) Oil is easier to store
(D) Oil is cheaper

117. Which of the following is not a Rabi Crop ?
(A) Lady’s finger
(B) Carrot
(C) Radish
(D) Pea

118. Coal is an example of—
(A) Igneous rocks
(B) Metamorphic rocks
(C) Sedimentary rocks
(D) All of the above

119. The birch tree is found in—
(A) Aravallis
(B) Himalayas
(C) Nilgiris
(D) Vindhyas

120. What is meant by energy crisis ?
(A) Shortage of hydro electricity
(B) Mal nutrition leading to short supply of energy in the body
(C) Shortage of thermal power
(D) Danger of extinction of fossil fuel like coal and petrol

121. A tachyon stands for—
(A) A particle moving faster than the velocity of light
(B) A constituent of heavier atomic nuclei
(C) A particle moving with velocity greater than the velocity of sound in air
(D) A quantum of lattice vibration

122. Pyrometers are used to measure—
(A) Depth
(B) Humidity
(C) Temperature
(D) Altitudes

123. Nitrogen fixing bacteria present in the modules on the roots of leguminous plants are—
(A) Saprophylic
(B) Parasitic
(C) Symbiotic
(D) Protolytic

124. Cholesterol is a—
(A) Type of chlorophyll
(B) Derivative of chloroform
(C) Fatty alcohol found in animal fat
(D) Chromium salt

125. Rock formed inside the earth as a result of solidification of lava are called—
(A) Plutonic rocks
(B) Volcanic rocks
(C) Metamorphic rocks
(D) Sedimentary rocks

126. The molten material found inside the earth is called—
(A) Lava
(B) Basalt
(C) Obsidian
(D) None of the above

127. Marble is—
(A) Re-crystallised limestone
(B) An igneous rock
(C) Sand stone
(D) Formed from changes of organic matters to inorganic one

128. Black hole—
(A) Does not emit any radiation
(B) Converts UV radiation to infra red
(C) Absorbs all radiations that fall on it
(D) Is an imaginary concept

129. Which one of the following is not an example of Metamorphic rock ?
(A) Marble
(B) Quartzite
(C) Slate
(D) Granite

130. Apple was launched from—
(A) Koron (French Guyana)
(B) Srihari Kota (India)
(C) Baikanoor (Russia)
(D) Cope Canaveral (U.S.A.)

131. The unit of measuring distances between the stars is known as—
(A) Stellar mile
(B) Cosmic km
(C) Galectic unit
(D) Light year

132. The concept of weathering relates to—
(A) Deposition of decomposed material
(B) Change in weather conditions day to day
(C) Natural process leading to the decomposition of rocks
(D) None of the above

133. In a normal healthy man rate of heart beat per minute is—
(A) 60 times
(B) 78 times
(C) 120 times
(D) 72 times

134. Which of the following gases are responsible for global warming ?
(A) Oxygen only
(B) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide
(C) Carbon dioxide and Methane
(D) Methane alone

135. ‘JAGAR’ is a form of God worship ritual prevalent in—
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) Haryana
(D) Assam

136. Name the river which flows between Kedarnath and Rudra Prayag—
(A) Bhagirathi
(B) Alaknanda
(C) Saryu
(D) Mandakini

137. The new State ‘Uttarakhand’ came into existence on—
(A) November 1, 2000
(B) November 9, 2000
(C) November 10, 2001
(D) January 1, 2008

138. MS Word is used for—
(A) Processing picture data
(B) Processing taxt data
(C) Processing numeric data
(D) None of the above

139. A pen drive is—
(A) A fixed secondary storage unit
(B) A magnetic secondary storage unit
(C) A removable secondary storage unit
(D) None of the above

140. ‘GIF’ stands for—
(A) Geographical Image Format
(B) Global Image Format
(C) Graphical Interchange Format
(D) None of the above

141. Networking of computers—
(A) Increases the chances of threats
(B) Increases the utility of computers
(C) Increases the information access possibilities
(D) All of the above

142. Basic Input-Output system in computer resides—
(A) On the Hard disk
(B) In the RAM
(C) In the ROM
(D) None of the above

143. The term MB is used for—
(A) Magnetic Bits
(B) Mega Bytes
(C) Mega Bits
(D) None of the above

144. ‘CPU’ stands for—
(A) Central Place Unit
(B) Central Province Unique
(C) Central Processing Unit
(D) Central Police Unit

145. The most common input device used today is—
(A) Track ball
(B) Scanner
(C) Mouse
(D) None of the above

146. The IC chips are made of—
(A) Fiber
(B) Semiconductor
(C) Plastic
(D) None of the above

147. The first digital computer built
with IC chips is known as—
(A) Apple 1
(B) VAX-780
(C) IBM–1620
(D) IBM System/360

148. Data system used for planning are called for—
(A) Planning Analysis System
(B) Decision Analysis System
(C) Decision Support System
(D) None of the above

149. 11 5 13 10 15 15 17 what will be next _ _ _ ?
(A) 5, 11
(B) 19, 21
(C) 25, 19
(D) 20, 19

150. ? ? ¦ ? fill up next two __
(A) ? ¦
(B) ¦
(C) ?
(D) ? ?

Answers
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (A) 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (D)
21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (A) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (C) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (B)
31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (D) 40. (C)
41. (D) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (A) 46. (B) 47. (D) 48. (B) 49. (B) 50. (C)
51. (A) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (C) 56. (B) 57. (A) 58. (B) 59. (C) 60. (A)
61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (A) 64. (A) 65. (C) 66. (A) 67. (A) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (C)
71. (A) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (D) 75. (A) 76. (A) 77. (D) 78. (B) 79. (B) 80. (B)
81. (C) 82. (A) 83. (C) 84. (B) 85. (B) 86. (B) 87. (C) 88. (D) 89. (B) 90. (A)
91. (A) 92. (C) 93. (B) 94. (C) 95. (D) 96. (D) 97. (C) 98. (B) 99. (C)100. (C)
101. (B) 102. (A)103. (A)104. (D)105. (C)106. (A) 107. (B) 108. (B) 109. (A)110. (A)
111. (D)112. (D)113. (B) 114. (A)115. (B)116. (A)117. (A)118. (C) 119. (D)120. (D)
121. (A)122. (C)123. (C) 124. (C)125. (A) 126. (D) 127. (A)128. (C) 129. (D) 130. (A)
131. (D)132. (C)133. (D)134. (C) 135. (B)136. (D) 137. (B)138. (B)139. (C) 140. (D)
141. (D)142. (B) 143. (B)144. (C)145. (C) 146. (B) 147. (B) 148. (B)149. (D)150. (A)

2008 PCS Civil Judge - Uttarakhand (Pre.) Exam., 2008 ( General Knowledge) Question paper

1. In the history of India, who among the following is famous for the policy of market control ?
(A) Balban
(B) Akbar
(C) Sher Shah
(D) Allauddin Khilji

2. Who among the following got the Rajeev Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2006 ?
(A) Parimarjan Negi
(B) Jeev Milkha
(C) Pankaj Adwani
(D) Mahendra Singh Dhoni

3. How many Schedules are there in the Indian Constitution at present ?
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 12

4. Which one of the following is not listed as a source of International Law in the statute of International Court of Justice ?
(A) Treaties
(B) Custom
(C) Precedent
(D) None of the above

5. Members of International Court of Justice are elected for a period of—
(A) 3 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 7 years
(D) 9 years

6. Who amongst the following is not appointed by the President ?
(A) Attorney General
(B) Advocate General
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Chief Election Commissioner

7. In which of the following cases the whole hearing was conducted through video conferencing first time in India ?
(A) Abdul Kareem Mulla 2006
(B) Abdul Kareem Telgi 2006
(C) Ottavio Quattrochhi 2006
(D) Telephone Tapping case 2006

8. In India power to declare any area as ‘scheduled area’ belongs to—
(A) Parliament
(B) Assembly of the State
(C) President
(D) Election Commissioner

9. On which of the following dates ‘Law Day’ is celebrated ?
(A) 8th September
(B) 28th October
(C) 26th November
(D) 20th December

10. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India relates to untouchability ?
(A) Art. 17
(B) Art. 18
(C) Art. 23
(D) Art. 24

11. National Human Rights Commission in India was established on—
(A) 26th January, 1993
(B) 15th March, 1993
(C) 15th June, 1993
(D) 27th September, 1993

12. Caveat shall not remain in force after expiry of—
(A) 30 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 90 days
(D) Six month

13. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights was adopted by the General Assembly on—
(A) January 3, 1966
(B) October 13, 1966
(C) November 5, 1966
(D) December 16, 1966

14. Phukan Commission is related to—
(A) Reservations for minorities
(B) Tehelka defence scandal
(C) Anti-Sikh riots of 1984
(D) Reforms in Civil Services

15. In 2005, the Supreme Court struck down the Illegal Migration (Determination by Tribunal) Act of 1983 applicable to the state of—
(A) Assam
(B) West Bengal
(C) Nagaland
(D) Manipur

16. Point out the correct answer. ‘Full faith and credit’ clause of the constitution does not apply to—
(A) Public Records
(B) Judicial proceedings
(C) Acts of corporations
(D) Public acts

17. The concept of Judicial Review in India has been taken from the Constitution of—
(A) Britain
(B) France
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Switzerland

18. A political party is recognised as National or Regional by the—
(A) State Government
(B) Central Government
(C) Chief State Election Commission
(D) Election Commissioner of India

19. Which one of the following is the correct statement ? The customary International law of treaties was codified in the—
(A) Viena Convention, 1980
(B) Statute of International Court of Justice
(C) Resolution of the U.N. General Assembly
(D) Viena Declaration, 1993

20. VAT is related to—
(A) Banking Service
(B) Business Tax System
(C) Life Insurance
(D) None of the above

21. The name of first Woman Chief Justice of High Court in India is—
(A) Leila Seth
(B) Leila Mukherjee
(C) Lalita Basu
(D) Sarojini Naidu

22. Which one of the following is related to SEBI ?
(A) Banking
(B) Share Market
(C) Insurance
(D) Banking and Insurance

23. Which medium is used by ‘Radar’ to trace aeroplanes ?
(A) Micro wave
(B) Electric wave
(C) Ultrasonic wave
(D) Sound wave

24. Which one of the following properties is not liable to be attached and sold in execution of decree ?
(A) Government Securities
(B) Promisory Notes
(C) Books and Accounts
(D) Bonds

25. The transfer of the company’s Government to British Crown was done on—
(A) 1st October, 1857
(B) 1st October, 1858
(C) 1st October, 1859
(D) 1st October, 1860

26. Which one of the following High Courts have the jurisdiction over largest number of states in India ?
(A) Calcutta High Court
(B) Bombay High Court
(C) Guwahati High Court
(D) Madras High Court

27. How many Judges of Supreme Court of India by now have been removed from their office before expiry of their normal term through impeachment ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) None

28. In which one of the lists of Constitution of India the subject of preventive detention lies ?
(A) Union list
(B) State list
(C) Concurrent list
(D) None of the above

29. World Environmental Day is celebrated on—
(A) 5th June
(B) 10th June
(C) 11th June
(D) 5th September

30. Gandhi International Peace Award 2006 was given to—
(A) Kiran Desai
(B) Ruth Manorama
(C) Shabana Azmi
(D) Suketu Mehta

31. How many members are nominated in Rajya Sabha under Indian Constitution ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 6
(D) 12

32. Who is the Head of the state under the Constitution of India ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President of India
(C) Parliament of India
(D) All the above

33. A law for preventively detention may be enacted by—
(A) Exclusively by Parliament
(B) Exclusively by state legislature
(C) By both Parliament as well as by state legislature
(D) Only by means of ordinance promulgated by the President

34. Who appoints the officers and employees of the High Court ?
(A) Chief Justice of High Court
(B) Governor of the concerned state
(C) Public Service Commission
(D) Registrar of High Court

35. Which one of the following scholars consider International law as true law ?
(A) Grotius
(B) Hobbes
(C) Holland
(D) Austin

36. Which of the following is not a principal organ of United Nations Organisation ?
(A) Trusteeship Council
(B) Economic and Social Council
(C) International Court of Justice
(D) Human Rights Commission

37. Which one of the following can enforce the judgement of International Court of Justice ?
(A) General Assembly on the recommendations of Security Council
(B) Secretary General
(C) Security Council on the request of International Court of Justice
(D) None of the above

38. The International Criminal Court is located at—
(A) Geneva
(B) Hague
(C) London
(D) Washington

39. The name of first woman judge of International Court of Justice is—
(A) Rosalyn Higgins
(B) Rosa E. Otunbayeva
(C) Gestrud Mongella
(D) Sadako Ogata

40. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court has held that strike by lawyers is illegal and unethical ?
(A) M. C. Mehta Vs. Union of India
(B) Lily Thomas Vs. Union of India
(C) Dr. B. L. Wadehra Vs. NCT Delhi
(D) Indira Sawhney Vs. Union of India

41. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court directed the Government of implement the law against female foeticide ?
(A) Madhu Kishwar Vs. State of Bihar
(B) CEHAT Vs. Union of India
(C) Balveer Kaur Vs. Dhirdas
(D) None of the above

42. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India has observed sexual harassment as a violation of human rights ?
(A) Vishakha Vs. State of Rajasthan
(B) Kapila Hingurani Vs. State of Bihar
(C) Tukaram Vs. State of Maharashtra
(D) Ahmed Khan Vs. Shahbano Begam

43. The case of Roman Catholic Priest, John Vallanmatton Vs. Union of India relates to—
(A) Enactment of Uniform Civil Code
(B) Enactment of Uniform Hindu Code
(C) Enactment of Uniform law for both Hindus and Christians
(D) None of the above

44. The Chief Justice of India may appoint an adhoc judge in the Supreme Court from amongst—
(A) Retired Judges of Supreme Court
(B) Serving Judges of the High Court
(C) Persons qualified to be appointed as Judge of the Supreme Court
(D) Retired Judge of a High Court

45. Copy right subsists after the death of an author for—
(A) 50 years
(B) 60 years
(C) 70 years
(D) 75 years

46. In which one of the following states recently the first regular quasi judicial mobile court has been inaugurated ?
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Haryana
(C) Punjab
(D) Maharashtra

47. By which of the following Constitutional Amendments Art 21-A on right to education has been added in the Constitution ?
(A) 85th Amendment
(B) 86th Amendment
(C) 87th Amendment
(D) 88th Amendment

48. Who among the following was the chairman of sixth pay commission ?
(A) Justice Rathnaval Pandian
(B) Justice A.S. Anand
(C) Justice Sri Krishna
(D) Justice A.K. Majumdar

49. In which one of the following sections the term ‘Information’ has been defined in the Right to Information Act, 2005 ?
(A) Sec. 2(g)
(B) Sec. 2(a)(i)
(C) Sec. 2(h)(a)
(D) Sec. 2(f)

50. Which one of the following cases relate to anti-strike verdict ?
(A) T.K. Rangrajan Vs. Govt. of Tamil Nadu AIR 2003 SC
(B) Shyam Narayan Vs. Union of India AIR 2003 M.P.
(C) High Court of Gujarat Vs. Gujarat Kisan Mazdoor (2003) 4 SCC
(D) M.K. Usman Vs. C.S. Santhe AIR 2003 Kerala

Answers
1. (D)
2. The Rajeev Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2006 is provided to Manavjeet Singh Sandhu, No answer is correct.
3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (A)
11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (A) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (C) 29. (A) 30. (C)
31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (A) 36. (D) 37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (C)
41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (C) 49. (D) 50. (A)

Uttaranchal Objective General Knowledge Question

Uttaranchal Objective General Knowledge Question

1. The first leader of the country who owned the responsibility of poverty and backwardness of Uttaranchal was—
(A) Atal Behari Bajpai
(B) Lal Krishan Adwani
(C) Mrs. Indra Gandhi
(D) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
Ans : (C)
2. What is the main cause of the formation of Uttaranchal ?
(A) Land and identity of hilly people
(B) Backwardness, poverty, inconvenience and migration
(C) Protection of hill peoples culture
(D) Political awarness of hilly people
Ans : (B)
3. Among the High Courts of the country, the Uttaranchal High Court ranks—
(A) 18th
(B) 19th
(C) 20th
(D) 21st
Ans : (C)
4. On which day is ‘Green-day’ celebrated in Uttaranchal ?
(A) 3rd July
(B) 5th July
(C) 8th July
(D) 15th July
Ans : (B)
5. How many districts are there in Uttaranchal ?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 15
Ans : (C)
6. According to 2001 census the total population of Uttaranchal is—
(A) 80.75 Lac
(B) 84.39 Lac
(C) 85.89 Lac
(D) 82.69 Lac
Ans : (B)
7. Where is the I.M.A. (Indian Military Academy) situated?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Pithoragarh
(C) Udham Singh Nagar
(D) Almora
Ans : (A)
8. Where is Lal Bahadur Shastri Academy situated?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Mussoorie
(C) Nainital
(D) Almora
Ans : (B)
9. In which district of Uttaranchal is the state forest services college situated?
(A) Nainital
(B) Sri Nagar
(C) Dehradun
(D) Pauri
Ans : (C)
10. Chipko Movement is related with—
(A) Forest conservation
(B) Wild life conservation
(C) Air conservation
(D) Water conservation
Ans : (A)
11. In which of the following districts are the maximum no. of scheduled tribes people found?
(A) Nainital
(B) Dehradun
(C) Tehri Garhwal
(D) Pithoragarh
Ans : (A)
12. What is the percentage of forested area in Uttaranchal ?
(A) 60%
(B) 61%
(C) 63%
(D) 49%
Ans : (C)
13. The specific identity of Uttaranchal is—
(A) Hilly culture
(B) Natural beauty
(C) Population
(D) Over all development
Ans : (B)
14. When was the U.P. reorganisation Bill passed in Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1st August, 2000
(B) 5th August, 2000
(C) 28th August, 2000
(D) 30th August, 2000
Ans : (A)
15. Papers were thrown in U.P. Assembly for the formation of Uttaranchal on—
(A) 19th August, 1994
(B) 19th August, 1995
(C) 19th August, 1996
(D) 19th August, 1997
Ans : (A)
16. Among the past glories of the state Chandan Singh Garhwali was—
(A) A man of literature
(B) A politician
(C) A freedom fighter
(D) A doctor
Ans : (C)
17. Total no. of seats in Lok Sabha for Uttaranchal is—
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 2
Ans : (B)
18. The proposed no. of Uttaranchal Vidhan Sabha members is—
(A) 60
(B) 70
(C) 75
(D) 80
Ans : (B)
19. The 1991-2001 decadal increase in the population of Uttaranchal is—
(A) 20%
(B) 21%
(C) 20.41%
(D) 18.2%
Ans : (C)
20. Main source of income of Uttaranchal is—
(A) Energy
(B) Forest resources and tourism
(C) Industry
(D) Agriculture
Ans : (B)
21. The world famous ‘Valley of flowers’ is situated at—
(A) Nainital
(B) Chamoli
(C) Uttar Kashi
(D) Pauri
Ans : (B)
22. Which one of the following districts has largest no. of peoples (population) ?
(A) Nainital
(B) Dehradun
(C) Haridwar
(D) Udham Singh Nagar
Ans : (C)
23. Who is known as ‘Garh Keshari’ of state?
(A) Sunder Lal Bahuguna
(B) Hemwati Nandan Bhauguna
(C) Ansuiya Prasad Bahuguna
(D) Vijay Bahuguna
Ans : (C)
24. Who is known as the Kumaon Keshari of the state?
(A) Badri Prasad Pandey
(B) Hemwati Nandan Bhauguna
(C) Murli Manohar Joshi
(D) Kashi Singh Airie
Ans : (A)
25. The first Chief Justice of Uttaranchal High Court is—
(A) Justice P.C. Verma
(B) Justice M.C. Jain
(C) Justice A.A. Desai
(D) Justice A. Vanketchalliya
Ans : (C)
26. Who among the following has been the Vice-Chancellor of Kumaon University?
(A) Dr. Ramsher Singh
(B) M.D. Uppadhyay
(C) G.L. Shah
(D) Chand Lal Shah
Ans : (B)
27. Which of the following temples is situated at Kedar Nath?
(A) Vishnu
(B) Shiva
(C) Brahma
(D) Kali
Ans : (B)
28. Where is the Sahastradhara water fall ?
(A) Badri Nath
(B) Dehradun
(C) Pithoragarh
(D) Kedar Nath
Ans : (B)
29. Where is the Har-Ki-Pauri situated at the bank of river Ganga?
(A) Haridwar
(B) Prayag
(C) Raj Ghat
(D) Rishikesh
Ans : (A)
30. Where is the Building Research Institute and Structural Engineering Centres?
(A) Kanpur
(B) Delhi
(C) Roorkee
(D) Gorakhpur
Ans : (C)
31. Antibiotic medicines manufacturing factory with the collaboration of Russia ts located in which of the following districts?
(A) Rishikesh
(B) Nainital
(C) Dehradun
(D) Tehri Garhwal
Ans : (A)
32. Corbett National Park is situated in which district of Uttaranchal ?
(A) Chamoli
(B) Nainital
(C) Rishikesh
(D) Garhwal
Ans : (B)
33. Which of the following pilgrimage centres is a place of re-establishment of Hindu religion by Shankracharya ?
(A) Haridwar
(B) Badri Nath
(C) Kader Nath
(D) Rishikesh
Ans : (B)
34. In which of the following hilly places famous is ‘Kempti fall’ situated ?
(A) Lansdowne
(B) Mussoorie
(C) Nainital
(D) Tapovan
Ans : (B)
35. Where is the Survey Department of India situated in Uttaranchal ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Nainital
(C) Almora
(D) Pithoragarh
Ans : (A)
36. Which of the following places is situated at the highest point at Uttaranchal ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Nainital
(C) Mussoorie
(D) Ranikhet
Ans : (C)
37. Which one of the following was the summer capital during the British period?
(A) Mussoorie
(B) Nainital
(C) Ranikhet
(D) Sri Nagar
Ans : (B)
38. Where is the Sat-tal lake situated at Uttaranchal ?
(A) Nainital
(B) Chamoli
(C) Almora
(D) Pauri
Ans : (A)
39. Which one of the following is known as the queen of hills of Uttaranchal ?
(A) Mussoorie
(B) Ranikhet
(C) SriNagar
(D) Badri Nath
Ans : (A)
40. Where is the National Indian Military College situated?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Nainital
(C) Mussoorie
(D) Pithoragarh
Ans : (A)
41. Which one of the following places is reserved for Scheduled Caste?
(A) Tehri
(B) Garhwal
(C) Haridwar
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
42. Where is the Tapovan at Uttaranchal situated?
(A) Rishikesh
(B) Nainital
(C) Almora
(D) Haridwar
Ans : (A)
43. Where is the museum situated at Uttaranchal ?
(A) Mussoorie
(B) Nainital
(C) Ranikhet
(D) Dehradun
Ans : (D)
44. Which of the following passes is in Uttaranchal ?
(A) Mana
(B) Darma
(C) Kungri-Bigri
(D) Lipulekh
Ans : (A)
45. Where is the China peak situated?
(A) Chamoli
(B) Almora
(C) Uttar Kashi
(D) Nainital
Ans : (D)
46. Where is the Heavy Electrical Limited situated?
(A) Haridwar
(B) Bhim-Tal
(C) Kotdwar
(D) Nainital
Ans : (A)
47. How many Polytechnic colleges are there in Uttaranchal ?
(A) 7
(B) 6
(C) 5
(D) 8
Ans : (C)
48. Where does the Bhotia tribe?
(A) Punjab
(B) Bihat
(C) Uttaranchal
(D) Haryana
Ans : (C)
49. From Geographical point of view in how many regions can the Uttaranchal be divided?
(A) 4
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
Ans : (D)
50. How many universities are there in Uttaranchal ?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 3
(D) 6
Ans : (D)
51. Which of the following countries, boundaries touch the Uttaranchal state?
(A) Nepal-Pakistan
(B) Tibet-Pakistan
(C) Tibet-China
(D) Tibet-Nepal
Ans : (D)
52. What is Chanchari ?
(A) Dance
(B) Art
(C) Music
(D) Literature
Ans : (A)
53. Where is the Doon valley situated?
(A) At the foot hills of outer Himalayas
(B) In lower Himalayan region
(C) In greater Himalayan region
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
54. What type of education is given at ‘Forest School of Dehradun’ ?
(A) Guide
(B) Ranger
(C) Military
(D) Forester
Ans : (B)
55. How many development authorities are in Uttaranchal ?
(A) Four
(B) Five
(C) Two
(D) Three
Ans : (B)
56. How many types of forests are found in Uttaranchal ?
(A) Four
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Five
Ans : (A)
57. Where is the agriculture universities in Uttaranchal ‘?
(A) Pant Nagar (Nainital)
(B) Pauri
(C) Rudra Prayag
(D) Roorkee (Haridwar)
Ans : (A)
58. Which one of the following cities is situated at river terraces?
(A) Dev Prayag
(B) Sri Nagar
(C) Pauri
(D) Chakarata
Ans : (B)
59. Which of the following institutes in Uttaranchal launched the programme of lahoratories to the field under the agriculture policy’?
(A) Pant Nagar University
(B) Narendra Dev Agriculture University
(C) Chandra Shekhar Azad Agriculture University
(D) Raja Balwant Agriculture University
Ans : (A)
60. How many tahsils are there in Uttaranchal ?
(A) 49
(B) 50
(C) 58
(D) 60
Ans : (A)
61. Karvashram is situated at—
(A) Almora
(B) Dehradun
(C) Haridwar
(D) Garhwal
Ans : (D)
62. Which of these is the Mini Switzerland according to Mahatma Gandhi?
(A) Almora (Kausani)
(B) Nainital
(C) Badri Nath
(D) Pithoragarh Singh
Ans : (A)
63. What is Lansdowne?
(A) A tourist place
(B) An industrial area
(C) A recreational place
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
64. Where is the Rajaji National Park situated?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Chamoli
(C) Pithoragarh
(D) Mussoorie
Ans : (A)
65. How many types of river groups are found in Uttaranchal ?
(A) Three
(B) Two
(C) Four
(D) Six
Ans : (A)
66. Where is the Ardhkumbh fair organised in Uttaranchal ?
(A) Haridwar
(B) Prayag
(C) Nasik
(D) Tehri
Ans : (A)
67. From where does the Upper Ganga canal in Uttaranchal emerge?
(A) Okhla
(B) Banwasa
(C) Haridwar
(D) Narora
Ans : (C)
68. At present what is the area of Uttaranchal ?
(A) 53.483 km²(B) 55,420 km²(C) 50,343 km²(D) 52,530 km²Ans : (A)
69. According to area which is the biggest district in Uttaranchal ?
(A) Uttar Kashi
(B) Chamoli
(C) Nainital
(D) Dehradun
Ans : (B)
70. Which is the smallest district according to area in Uttaranchal ?
(A) Uttar Kashi
(B) Tehri Garhwal
(C) Dehradun
(D) Bageshwar
Ans : (D)
71. Where is the three metre diameter telescope, the biggest in Asia being established in Uttaranchal in collaboration with Tata Institute of Fundamental Research Mumbai ‘?
(A) Devsthal (Nainital)
(B) Almora
(C) Pithoragarh
(D) Tehri Garhwal
Ans : (A)
72. Where has the wild life protection training centre been established in Uttaranchal ‘?
(A) Almora
(B) Kalagarh
(C) Nainital
(D) Chamoli
Ans : (B)
73. Tiger project is related with—
(A) Corbett National Park
(B) Dudhwa National Park
(C) Nanda Devi National Park
(D) Rajaji National Park
Ans : (A)
74. In which region of Uttaranchal is ‘Nagrik and Soyam forest development project’ launched ‘?
(A) Kumaon region
(B) Garhwal region
(C) Both in (A) and (B)
(D) Entire state
Ans : (C)
75. Where is the tradition of Long and Bhella dance in Uttaranchal ‘?
(A) Garhwal
(B) Nainital
(C) Almora
(D) Dehradun
Ans : (A)
76. Where is the Motichoor sanctuary situated ‘?
(A) Pithoragarh
(B) Champawat
(C) Haridwar
(D) Chamoli
Ans : (C)
77. On which river is the Ichari dam situated ‘?
(A) Bhagirathi
(B) Tons
(C) Yamuna
(D) Kali
Ans : (B)
78. Where is the Pant College of Technology situated in Uttaranchal ‘?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Roorkee
(C) Bhimtal
(D) Pant Nagar
Ans : (D)
79. Which is the highest peak of Uttaranchal ‘?
(A) Nandakot
(B) Trishul
(C) Nanda Devi
(D) Kamet
Ans : (C)
80. At the bank of which river is Rishikesh pilgrim centre in Uttaranchal situated?
(A) Ghaghara
(B) Ganga
(C) Sharda
(D) Yamuna
Ans : (B)
81. Previously what was the name of Uttaranchal ?
(A) Karam Bhumi
(B) Uttrakhand
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Kurmanchal
Ans : (B)
82. Where is the Bhuvneshwari fair organised at Uttaranchal ?
(A) Pauri
(B) Almora
(C) Bageshwar
(D) Tehri
Ans : (A)
83. When did the Khateema incident happen?
(A) 7th Sept., 1994
(B) 20th Oct., 1996
(C) 2nd Sept., 1995
(D) 2nd Oct., 1995
Ans : (C)
84. When was the Kumaon Council formed?
(A) 1927
(B) 1928
(C) 1926
(D) 1925
Ans : (C)
85. Who was the leader of Utthan-Parishad in Uttaranchal ?
(A) Soban Singh Jeena
(B) Taradutt Pandey
(C) Badridatt Pandey
(D) Daya Krishna
Ans : (C)
86. Chandi Prasad the dignity of Uttaranchal, was awarded the international prize, what is that prize?
(A) Nobel prize
(B) Oskar prize
(C) Ramon Magsaysay Prize
(D) None of these.
Ans : (C)
87. Where is the maximum rice grown in Uttaranchal ?
(A) Nainital
(B) Dehradun
(C) Uddham Singh Nagar
(D) Haridwar
Ans : (B)
88. What is Pindari ?
(A) A pass
(B) A mountainous range
(C) A river
(D) A Glacier
Ans : (D)
89. Where is the copper found in Uttaranchal ?
(A) Pithoragarh
(B) Kumaon
(C) Almora
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
90. At present who is the Chairman of Public Service Commission of Uttaranchal ?
(A) N. P. Nawani
(B) Ajay Vikram Singh
(C) K. Arya
(D) Satpal Maharaj
Ans : (C)
91. What is the field of activity Sunder Lal Bahuguna in the state?
(A) Politics
(B) Literature
(C) Environment
(D) Education
Ans : (C)
92. Which is the small Kashmir of Uttaranchal ?
(A) Mussoorie
(B) Nainital
(C) Almora
(D) Pithoragarh
Ans : (D)
93. Where is the Sarovar Nagri in the state?
(A) Nainital
(B) Dehradun
(C) Ranikhet
(D) Badri Nath
Ans : (A)
94. The economy of Uttaranchal is known as—
(A) Stable economy
(B) Money order economy
(C) Borrowed economy
(D) Unstable economy
Ans : (B)
95. The historic achievement of mountai neer Bachhendri Pal is—
(A) Comet and Gamin victory
(B) Mount Black victory
(C) Guide to new mountaineers
(D) Mount Everest victory
Ans : (D)
96. Dr. Pitambar Dutt Badashwal prize 2000, was awarded by Uttar Pradesh Hindi Sansthan to which literary person?
(A) Sailesh Matiyani
(B) Himanshu Joshi
(C) Govind Chatak
(D) Dr. Dinesh Chand Baluni
Ans : (D)
97. Sundari Ritu Uppadhyay won a beautiful title. the title is—
(A) Miss World
(B) Miss Universe
(C) Miss Asia Pacific
(D) Miss India World-wide
Ans : (D)
98. The distinguished lady of the state who has been honoured with an international recognition in 2000 is—
(A) Mranal Pandey
(B) Shivani
(C) Kalawati Rawat
(D) Tara Pandey
Ans : (C)
99. At present who is the Chief Minister of Uttaranchal ?
(A) Bhagat Singh Kaushiari
(B) Narain Dutt Tiwari
(C) Nityanand Swami
(D) Matwar Singh Bhandari
Ans : (B)
100. The Chief Minister who formed ‘Kaushik Samiti’ for Uttaranchal was—
(A) Kalyan Singh
(B) Mulayam Singh
(C) Mayawati
(D) Rajnath Singh
Ans : (B)
101. First national park of S.E. Asia was ‘Haily National Park’, what is its present name?
(A) Govind National Park
(B) Rajaji National Park
(C) Corbett National Park
(D) Dudhwa National Park
Ans : (C)
102. After reorganisation of states in November 2000, Uttaranchal stands—
(A) 25th
(B) 26th
(C) 27th
(D) 28th
Ans : (C)
103. Extent of Uttaranchal state is—
(A) Length—East to West 258 km. Breadth—North to South 420 km.
(B) Length—East to West 358 km. Breadth—North to South 320 km.
(C) Length—East to West 368 km. Breadth—North to South 325 km.
(D) Length—East to West 370 km. Breadth—North to South 330 km.
Ans : (B)
104. Last king of Uttaranchal is known—
(A) Bamshah
(B) Pradhuman Shah
(C) Harsh Dev Joshi
(D) Manvendra Shah
Ans : (B)
105: The capital (Temporary) of Uttaranchal is—
(A) Dehradun
(B) Gairsain
(C) Nainital
(D) Kalagarh
Ans : (A)
106. The cultivated land in Uttaranchal is—
(A) 10.5%
(B) 12.5%
(C) 13.5%
(D) 14.5%
Ans : (B)
107. The density of population of Uttaranchal according to 2001 is—
(A) 150
(B) 159
(C) 160
(D) 161
Ans : (B)
108. The percentage of total literacy in Uttaranchal is—
(A) 70%
(B) 75%
(C) 71.6%
(D) 67.75%
Ans : (C)
109. Female literacy in Uttaranchal is—
(A) 60%
(B) 56.9%
(C) 65.75%
(D) 80.20%
Ans : (B)
110. The sex ratio in Uttaranchal is—
(A) 947
(B) 959
(C) 962
(D) 965
Ans : (C)
111. Maximum female literacy in Uttaranchal is—
(A) Nainital
(B) Dehradun
(C) Almora
(D) Garhwal
Ans : (B)
112. From the point of view of earthquakes, the Uttaranchal has been kept in zone—
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 4 and 5
Ans : (D)
113. Which is the first state in the country, which established Hazard Management Ministry ?
(A) Uttaranchal
(B) Himachal
(C) Assarn
(D) Gujarat
Ans : (A)
114. Source of origin of the Ganga is—
(A) Gomukh
(B) Gangotri
(C) Badri Nath
(D) Yamunotri
Ans : (B)
115. At which place does the Ganga enter the plains area?
(A) Haridwar
(B) Dehradun
(C) Moradabad
(D) Garh-Mukteshwar
Ans : (A)
116. Who was the first Chief Minister of Uttaranchal?
(A) Nityanand Swami
(B) Surjeet Singh Barnala
(C) Govind Ballabh Pant
(D) Narain Dutt Tiwari
Ans : (A)
117. Which of the following dams is Sunder Lal Bahuguna opposing?
(A) Pancheshwar Dam
(B) Kisau Dam
(C) Tehri Dam
(D) Lakhwar Dam
Ans : (C)
118. Where is the Sanjeevani whose description is found in the Ramayan ?
(A) Himalayan region
(B) Siberia
(C) Darzeeling
(D) Solan
Ans : (A)
119. Who founded Nainital ?
(A) William Douglas
(B) Berro
(C) Venus
(D) Gorge
Ans : (B)
120. Why is the Pancheshwar Dam project in controversy ?
(A) For the interest of Nepalies
(B) For Indo-Nepal controversy
(C) For the protection of bio-resources
(D) No reason
Ans : (C)
121. Where is the hard base camp of Mansarovar Pilgrimage located?
(A) Almora
(B) Bageshwar
(C) Pithoragarh
(D) Champawat
Ans : (C)
122. When did the earthquake occur in Uttar Kashi ?
(A) In 1990
(B) In 1991
(C) In 1992
(D) In 1998
Ans : (B)
123. The national poet Sumitra Nandan Pant was the resident of—
(A) Kausani (Almora)
(B) Nainital
(C) Bageshwar
(D) Almora
Ans : (A)
124. Kaushik Samiti recommended the appropriate place for Uttaranchal capital—
(A) Dehradun
(B) Gairsain
(C) Haridwar
(D) Haldwani
Ans : (B)
125. What is ‘Milam’ ?
(A) A Glacier
(B) A river
(C) A pass
(D) A mountain range
Ans : (A)
126. Who said “Ranikhet is one of the beautiful hill stations of Uttaranchal” ?
(A) Justice William C. Douglas
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Sumitra Nandan Pant
Ans : (A)
127. At which place does river Bhagirathi merge with Mandakini ?
(A) Rudra Prayag
(B) Tehri
(C) Dev Prayag
(D) Rishikesh
Ans : (C)
128. The origin of Pindar river is from—
(A) Milam
(B) Badri Nath
(C) Pindari glacier
(D) Kedar Nath
Ans : (C)
129. Who availed the longest term of Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh, elected from Uttaranchal ?
(A) Chaudhari Charan Singh
(B) Hemwati Nandan Bahuguna
(C) Govind Ballabh Pant
(D) Narain Dutt Tiwari
Ans : (C)
130. Where is the Naina-Saini aerodrome in Uttaranchal ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Pithoragh
(C) Pant Nagar
(D) Nainital
Ans : (B)
131. The Council of Ministers in Uttaranchal was formed on—
fA) 20th November, 2000
(B) 18th November, 2000
(C) 19th November, 2000
(D) 9th November, 2000
Ans : (D)
132. Which of the following universities has been given the status of I.I.T. ?
(A) Kumaon University
(B) Garhwal University
(C) Gurukul Kangri University
(D) Roorkee University
Ans : (D)
133. Where is the Jawahar Lal Nehru Mountaineering Institute ‘?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Uttar Kashi
(C) Chamoli
(D) Bageshwar
Ans : (C)
134. Where is the Tiffin Top situated?
(A) Nainital
(B) Bhimtal
(C) Haldwani
(D) Ranikhet
Ans : (A)
135. Where has an I.I.T. in collaboration with I.I.T. Switzerland been opened?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Nainital
(C) Chamoli
(D) Almora
Ans : (B)
136. Who has been appointed the 1st Advocate General of Uttaranchal ?
(A) Sudhansu Dhulia
(B) Nanda Ballabh Tiwari
(C) U. K. Uniyal
(D) G. C. S. Rawat
Ans : (A)
137. Who was appointed the first Registrar General of Uttaranchal High Court?
(A) L. P. Nathani
(B) G. C. S. Rawat
(C) M. M. Ghandiyal
(D) Sudhansu Dhulia
Ans : (B)
138. Who was the first Prime Minister to announce the formation of Uttaranchal state on indepences day’?
(A) Atal Bihari Bajpai
(B) Rajeev Gandhi
(C) Chandrashekhar
(D) H. D. Devgowda
Ans : (D)
139. Who was the first regional leader to think about the formation of Uttaranchal ?
(A) Inder Singh Nayal
(B) Nityanand Swami
(C) Dr. Indra Hirdayesh
(D) Badri Dutt Pandey
Ans : (D)
140. By which name is the Haridwar known ‘?
(A) Kumbh Nagri
(B) Sant Nagri
(C) Ganga Nagri
(D) (A) and (B) both
Ans : (D)
141. Chief of the Army General B.C. Joshi was the resident of—
(A) Chamoli
(B) Dehradun
(C) Nainital
(D) Almora
Ans : (D)
142. Who was the first Commissioner of Uttaranchal ?
(A) Mr. Gardener
(B) Mr. Robert
(C) Mr. Jim
(D) Mr. William Douglas
Ans : (A)
143. When was the Gurukul Kangri Museum Haridwar established?
(A) 1907-08
(B) 1910-11
(C) 1905-06
(D) 1960-61
Ans : (A)
144. Ex-central Minister Satpal Maharaj is originally—
(A) A Politician
(B) A Environmentalist
(C) A Spiritual Guru
(D) A Literate
Ans : (C)
145. First D.G.P. (Director General Police) Sir Ashok Kant Saran belongs to—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Uttaranchal
Ans : (D)
146. British woman Hielamen known as ‘Sarla Bahen’ her working field was—
(A) Reform in Uttaranchal state
(B) Medical services in Uttaranchal state
(C) Organis’ation of freedom fighting in the state
(D) Propagation of Christianity -in the state
Ans : (C)
147. Ajay Vikram Singh, the First Administrator of the state is a—
(A) Director General of Police
(B) Home Secretary
(C) Chief Secretary
(D) Chlcf Justice
Ans : (C)
148. The Commission for Uttaranchal was—
(A) Fazal Ali Commission
(B) Kaushik Commission
(C) Pant Commission
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
149. The capital of Katyuri King was—
(A) Katyuri
(B) Baijnath
(C) Mussoorie
(D) Almora
Ans : (B)
150. Who presented the 1st budget (State Budget) 2001-2002, on 3rd May, 2001 in Uttaranchal Vidhan Sabha ?
(A) Dr. Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank
(B) Nitya Nand Swami
(C) Prakash Pant
(D) Matwar Singh Bhandari
Ans : (A)
151. Which is the first state assembly to establish its separate website?
(A) Jharkhand
(B) Uttaranchal
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Manipur
Ans : (B)
152. Who is the first Chairman of the Public Service Commission of Uttaranchal ?
(A) N. P. Nawani
(B) K. Arya
(C) Ajay Vikram Singh
(D) Ashok Kant Saran
Ans : (A)
153. Who has the record of being Protem speaker for maximum period i.e. (46 days) ?
(A) Dharam Singh (U. P. Assembly)
(B) InderSinghNamdhari (Jharkhand Assembly)
(C) Kazi Mohiuddin (Uttaranchal Assembly)
(D) Rajendra Prasad Shukla (Chhattisgarh Assembly)
Ans : (C)
154. When was the first session of 30 members of interim Uttaranchal Vidhan Sabha with the Governor’s address started?
(A) 11th January, 2001
(B) 12th January, 2001
(C) 14th January, 2001
(D) 21 st January, 2001
Ans : (B)
155. Proposed capital of Uttaranchal is—
(A) Dehradun
(B) Nainital
(C) Haridwar
(D) Udham Singh Nagar
Ans : (B)
156. How many cities (According to 2001 Census) have population more than one lac?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 6
Ans : (A)
157. Which of the following cities has maximum population in Uttaranchal ?
(A) Roorkee
(B) Dehradun
(C) Haldwani-Kathgodam
(D) Haridwar
Ans : (B)
158. What is the total percentage of population having the age group of 0 to 6 in Uttaranchal ?
(A) 15.56%
(B) 16.04%
(C)17.32%
(D) 14.15%
Ans : (A)
159. In which of the following districts the maximum male literacy is found in Uttaranchal ?
(A) Pauri Garhwal
(B) Chamoli
(C) Dehradun
(D) Nainital
Ans : (A)
160. In which of the following districts the maximum population of age group 0-6 is found in Uttaranchal State?
(A) Haridwar
(B) Dehradun
(C) Nainital
(D) Chamoli
Ans : (A)
161. How many members consist a forest Panchyat in Uttaranchal ?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans : (D)
162. When the new mining policy at Uttaranchal was declared?
(A) 5th May, 2001
(B) 15 Aug, 2001
(C) 15th Jan, 2001
(D) 4th April, 2001
Ans : (D)
163. Which of the following minerals is found maximum in Uttaranchal ?
(A) Limestone
(B) Gypsum
(C) Marble
(D) Barite
Ans : (A)
164. In which of the following districts the silver is found in Uttaranchal ?
(A) Nainital
(B) Dehradun
(C) Almora
(D) Garhwal
Ans : (C)
165. Which one of the following is not the policy matter of New Industrial Policy of Uttaranchal ?
(A) No Subsidy to new industries
(B) 2% rebate of interest at the loan of 2 lac
(C) Rehabilitation of handicrafts, handloom industries etc
(D) To exempt from tax upto five years
Ans : (D)
166. Where the tertiary soil in Uttaranchal is found?
(A) Hundari Region
(B) Sub Himalayan Region
(C) Doon Valleys
(D) Above all
Ans : (C)
167. How many type of soil is found in Uttaranchal ?
(A) Four
(B) Five
(C) Six
(D) Three
Ans : (B)
168. How many new National Highways have been declared in the State?
(A) Four
(B) Three
(C) Two
(D) Five
Ans : (B)