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Thursday, April 14, 2011

US co 'generates' power from canals in Uttarakhand


A US-based company has claimed to have generated power from canals in Uttarakhand.
DLZ Power Pvt Ltd has claimed that it has successfully generated 25 Kw of power by putting up a hydrokinetic turbine machine at Shakti Canal near Chila power house, 55 km from here. The machine remains floated with the help of pontoons in order to generate power.
The machine, which weighs 4.5 tonnes, is designed to produce power from the velocity produced by running waters of the canal. At the Shakti Canal, the average velocity of water is 2 meter per second which is enough to generate power, said Mr Nitin Singhal, Project in-charge of DLZ.
The project was started in January this year. The company is currently holding trials at Chila canal and the results are positive, he claimed. “Our company has been able to generate 25 Kw of energy successfully at Shakti Canal,” Mr Singhal said.
In Shakti Canal alone, such floating turbine machines, which remain stationary with the help of anchors, can be put up at a distance of 100 metre from one another in order to generate more power. In Shakti Canal, an estimated 5 Mw of power can be produced.
Asked about the viability of such machines, he said: “I can say it is very much viable.”
All machines are being imported from abroad which have been manufactured by the Canada-based New Energy Corporation with which DLZ has entered into a joint collaboration. DLZ is working in the hydropower sector.

Govt to provide 50,000 jobs to people: Nishank


PTI | 09:04 PM,Apr 13,2011
Dehradun, Apr 13 (PTI) Uttarakhand Chief Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank today said his government has fixed a target of providing 50,000 jobs to the people this year. "The government will provide 50,000 jobs to the people this year and is working in this direction," he said after inaugurating six development works worth Rs 2531.48 lakh in Rudraprayag district. He also announced to set up a women polytechnic institute at Devli village there and upgrade nearly a dozen several junior high schools of the area.

Monday, February 21, 2011

BIO DATA OF Dr. Ramesh Pokhriyal 'Nishank' Uttarakhand

BIO DATA OF Dr. Ramesh Pokhriyal 'Nishank'

It’s on the card, sooner or later BJP has to make some face saving exercise after a defeat in recently held general elections. Even after winning and forming a government in Uttarakhand two years ago the BJP fails to win even a single seat from the five seats up for grab in the Lok Sabha Elections. Bhagat Singh Koshiyari adopt the pressure tactics by resigning from Rajya Sabha( later he withdraws it too) but the outgoing Chief Minister must be satisfied with the fact that the new CM Ramesh Pokhriyal is said to be close to Khanduri and is finance minister in his government. Coming from Garhwal region Mr Pokhriyal is a veteran in the politics and except on one occasion get elected in all elections since 1990. He also served as minister in three ministries of UP government. A journalist and poet ME Pokhriyal is also said to be close to RSS and also known for his clean image. Its only irony that the name of B C Khanduri was proposed by B S Koshiyari and seconded by Ramesh Pokhriyal and today he is dethroned by the same duo. Well it’s all about ‘KISSA KURSI KA’
 
BIO DATA OF Dr. Ramesh Pokhriyal 'Nishank'



Date of birth
15th August, 1958
Place of birth
Village Pinani, Pauri (Garhwal), Uttarakhand (India)
Nationality    
INDIAN
37/1, Vijay Colony, Rabindranath Tagore Marg, Dehradun (Uttarakhand)
E-mail
Religion
Hindu
Profession/Occupation
Minister of Health and Family Welfare and Minister for Science & Technology, Biotechnology, Govt. of Uttarakhand
Field of activity
Literature, Social Work, Journalism, Politics and several other creative works
Padma Award for which name is recommended
Padma Shri
Padma Award conferred if any, in the past
None
Literary creations
Dr. Nishank is originally a literary person. His creations published so far have established him in a respectable position in the world of literature. He is filled with the spirit of nationalism. This forms a prime reason for the inclusion of his name in the list of national poets. His notable creations published so far are as under:
Poems
1- Samarpan (1983)
2- Navankur (1984)
3- Mujhe Vidhata Banna Hai (1985)
4- Tum Bhee Mere Saath Chalo (1986)
5- Desh Hum Jalne Na Denge (1988)
6- Jeevanpath Mein (1989)
7- Matrabhoomi Ke Liye (1992)
8- Koi Mushkil Naheen (2005)
Stories
1- Roshnee Kee Ek Kiran (1986)
2- Bas Ek Hee Ichchaa (1989)
3- Kya Naheen Ho Sakta (1993)
4- Khare Hue Prashna (2007)
Compilation of letters of Martyrs (Shaheed)
Meree Vyatha, Meree Katha
Political achievements
  • Elected central spokesperson in 1987 when BJP constituted Uttaranchal Pradesh Sangharsh Samiti.
  • Elected MLA in 1991 from Karnaprayag Constituency.
  • Elected MLA in 1993 and 1996 from the same Constituency.
  • Became a Cabinet Minister in the then undivided Uttar Pradesh Govt. in 1997 and was assigned the charge of the Ministry for Development of Uttaranchal.
  • Became the Minister for Culture, Arts and Religion in the year 1998.
  • After the formation of the then Uttaranchal (later renamed as Uttarakhand) State, was assigned with the charge of 12 different portfolios including Finance, Rural Development, Medical Education and Revenue amongst others.
  • Elected from the Thailisan Constituency and was made the Minister of Health and Family Welfare and Ayush, and Minister for Science and Technology.
Highlights of proud administrative decisions taken as per policy while being Cabinet Minister in the Govt. of Uttar Pradesh
  • Got increased the aid from the centre for the Development of Uttaranchal State from the existing amount of Rs. 175 crores to Rs. 675 crore. Correspondingly, got increased the budget allocation for this plan to an amount of Rs. 1160 Crores.
  • Worked diligently for the formation of the State of Uttaranchal while being minister in the Govt. of Uttar Pradesh.
  • Sorted out intricate and sensitive issues like inclusion of Hardwar and Udham Singh Nagar in the state of Uttaranchal with the aid of Political Skills, Knowledge and sound coordination skills.
  • Brought a spur in the cultural activity chart while being the Minister for Culture, Arts and Religion.
  • Made countless successful efforts to bring the Himalayan culture at the International Forum.
  • Felicitated prominent National Personalities to add to the honour of the nation and the state.
  • Added value to the hitherto considered unimportant portfolio of the Ministry of Culture, Arts and Religion with his innovative ideas and experiments.
  • Brought to the fore in foreign nations, the Indian culture, by coordination with prominent foreign personalities.
A glance at milestone administrative measures taken aimed at public welfare
  • Finalized the structure of the Office of the Tax Commissioner.
  • Commissioned 11 check posts at the State Border to curb and put an end to corruption and tax evasion.
  • Implemented the recommendations of the Empowered Committee formed by the Central Government to implement the VAT System in the state in the interest of the citizens of the state.
  • Prompt actions were taken in all sections coming under the Directorate, Treasury and Finance Department, during his regime as minister. In the process, the basic feeling of Social development in the state was kept in mind and the importance of Panchayati Raj System was stressed upon.
  • Did not introduce any new tax and presented a burden-free budget despite financial constraints within the state.
  • The Dearness Allowance was increased appropriately and the timely payment of the salaries of the government servants on a monthly basis was ensured.
  • Uttaranchal became the first State in India to adopt the Collective Payment and Accounting System for payment of Salaries. This initiative greatly simplifies the process of the Salary Payment.
  • Reduced the Central Sales Tax from 4% to 1% to encourage Small Scale Industries to operate from the state.
  • Opened 364 Depots for necessary goods and articles all across the state and thereby increased revenue from 61.75 Crores to 128 Crores.
  • Increased the Commercial Tax collection from Rs. 161.19 Crore during 1999-2001 to Rs. 233.24 Crore during 2002.
  • Increased total tax collection from Rs. 575 crore to Rs. 1100 Crore.
  • Doubled the exemption limit for duty on agricultural equipments in the interest of the farmers.
Achievements in the so far short tenure of newly elected Government
  • Was given the charge of the Minister for Medical Health and Family Welfare and Ayush, as also the Minister for Science and Technology.
  • Initiated several improvement measures in the Health Department as Health Minister.
  • Have been successful in curbing corruption and instilling discipline in the Departments in a short span of time.
  • Formulated several programmes and schemes for the upliftment and welfare of general public in the field of Medical Health and Ayush. Several such schemes are under consideration and on the verge of being finalized.
  • Initiated several welfare measure schemes in the field of Science and Technology. Got the approval for building ‘Science City’ in the capital of the state.
  • Decision to open Science Centre at all District Headquarters and at Block Level was taken.
  • Initiated several measures to take the advancement in the field of Science and Technology and in the field of Agriculture to the people staying in Geographically Remote and hazardous Locations.
  • Considering several schemes to uplift the standard of living and lifestyle of people staying on hilly areas, especially women, with the help of Science and Technology.
Success Mantra
Dedication, tireless hard work and intelligence have made him achieve what he has. His believe in god and feeling for the suffering urged him to become their voice and come out with flying colours, despite all constraints
 Honored by the open International University Colombo (Sri Lanka) with the doctorate degree as DOCTOR OF SCIENCE in the month of November 2007.

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam., 2006

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam., 2006Commerce : Solved Paper
(Held on 9-3-2008)

1. The share of new partner in the profits is 1/5 and his capital is Rs. 20,000. The new profit sharing ratio is 3 : 1 : 1. The share of partners in total capital will be—
(A) 60,000 : 20,000 : 20,000
(B) 80,000 : 20,000 : 20,000
(C) 50,000 : 20,000 : 25,000
(D) None of the above

2. At the time of dissolution the loss of the business, will be compensated first of all from—
(A) Capital
(B) Profits
(C) Personal resources of the partners
(D) Donations

3. The meaning of written down value is—
(A) Original cost – Scrap value
(B) Book value + Depreciation
(C) Book value – Depreciation
(D) None of these

4. Given :
Depreciation on the basis of Fixed Instalment Method Rs. 2,000 p.a.
Establishment expenses Rs. 5,000
Scrap value Rs. 1,000
Span of life 10 years
The cost of assets will be—
(A) Rs. 20,000
(B) Rs. 16,000
(C) Rs. 12,000
(D) None of these

5. Given :
Cost Rs. 1,00,000
Scrap Value Rs. 10,000
Span of Life 10 years
Rate of depreciation 20% p.a.
The amount of depreciation for the first year on the basis of diminishing balance method will be—
(A) Rs. 20,000
(B) Rs. 18,000
(C) Rs. 9,000
(D) Rs. 10,000

6. Match the following List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the answer codes given below—
List-I
(a) AS-6
(b) AS-10
(c) AS-26
(d) AS-20
List-II
1. Accounting for Earning per share
2. Accounting for intangible and fictitious assets
3. Accounting for fixed assets
4. Depreciation Accounting
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 4 3 2 1

7. Establishment expenses of a new machine will be debited to—
(A) Expenses Account
(B) Profit and Loss Account
(C) Machinery Account
(D) None of the above

8. Goodwill is—
(A) Floating Asset
(B) Wasting Asset
(C) Fictitious Asset
(D) Intangible Asset

9. A Balance Sheet shows only—
(A) Personal Accounts and Nominal Accounts
(B) Real Accounts and Nominal Accounts
(C) Personal Accounts and Real Accounts
(D) Personal, Real and Nominal Accounts

10. Discount on Issue of Shares A/c is shown at the—
(A) Debit side of P & L A/c
(B) Assets side of B/S
(C) Liabilities side of B/S
(D) None of the above

11. Pre-incorporation Profit is transferred to—
(A) General Reserve
(B) Capital Reserve
(C) Profit and Loss A/c
(D) Trading A/c

12. Which of the following is shown in Profit & Loss Appropriation A/c ?
(A) Provision for Income Tax
(B) Provision for Depreciation
(C) Provision for Doubtful Debts
(D) Contribution to General Reserve

13. On liquidation of a Company first payment is made in respect of—
(A) Liquidator’s remuneration
(B) Legal expenses
(C) Preferential creditors
(D) None of the above

14. Workmen’s Compensation Fund is a—
(A) Provision
(B) Surplus
(C) Current liability
(D) Loan

15. Debentures of Rs. 4,25,000 are issued against the purchase of assets of Rs. 4,50,000. In this case the amount of Rs. 25,000 is—
(A) Capital Reserve
(B) Securities Premium
(C) Revenue Profit
(D) Goodwill

16. A Company can reissue its forfeited shares—
(A) At a premium
(B) At a face value
(C) At a discount
(D) All of the above

17. Which of the following is an example of capital expenditure ?
(A) Insurance Premium
(B) Taxes and Legal expenses
(C) Depreciation
(D) Custom duty on import of machinery

18. Given :
Average profit of a firm Rs. 21,000
Normal Profit Rs. 18,000
Value of goodwill on the basis of 3 years purchases of super profit shall be—
(A) Rs. 39,000
(B) Rs. 9,000
(C) Rs. 3,000
(D) Rs. 12,000

19. A co-operative auditor starts his work of audit from—
(A) Account Books
(B) Payment Books
(C) Cash Book
(D) None of the above

20. Accounting for research and development relates to—
(A) AS-7
(B) AS-8
(C) AS-9
(D) AS-10

21. Goods worth Rs. 2,000 were distributed to employees free of charge. The account to be debited is—
(A) Profit and Loss A/c
(B) Advertisement A/c
(C) Labour Welfare A/c
(D) Goods A/c

22. The maximum rate of underwriting commission on debentures is—
(A) 10%
(B) 2•5%
(C) 12•5%
(D) 5%

23. X Ltd. forfeited 20 shares of Rs. 10 each on which Rs. 6 per share were paid. If out of these shares, 8 shares were reissued to Ram as fully paid up on payment of Rs. 5•50 per share, the amount that will remain standing to the credit of Share Forfeited A/c will be—
(A) Rs. 48
(B) Rs. 72
(C) Rs. 84
(D) Rs. 120

24. Bonus Shares are issued to—
(A) Equity Shareholders
(B) Preference Shareholders
(C) Debenture Holders
(D) Secured Creditors

25. On an equity share of Rs. 100, the minimum amount payable on application under the law should be—
(A) Rs. 20
(B) Rs. 15
(C) Rs. 10
(D) Rs. 5

26. Share Premium received by a Company may be used for—
(A) Payment of dividend
(B) Payment of remuneration to management
(C) Issue of Bonus shares
(D) None of these

27. Garner Vs. Murray rule applies in case of—
(A) Admission of a partner
(B) Dissolution of a firm
(C) Retirement of a partner
(D) Death of a partner

28. When sale is Rs. 4,80,000, gross loss is 25% on cost, purchase is Rs. 3,50,000 and closing stock is Rs. 60,000, the stock in the beginning would be—
(A) Rs. 70,000
(B) Rs. 94,000
(C) Rs. 1,34,000
(D) Rs. 3,50,000

29. Balance of Debenture Redemption Fund Account is transferred to—
(A) Capital Reserve A/c
(B) Profit and Loss A/c
(C) General Reserve A/c
(D) None of these

30. Planning includes—
(A) Objectives
(B) Policy
(C) Strategy
(D) All of the above

31. Hawthorne Experiments were conducted by—
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) F. W. Taylor
(D) Peter F. Drucker

32. Who is called ‘The Father of Scientific Management’ ?
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) E. F. L. Breach
(D) F. W. Taylor

33. A plan when expressed in quantitative terms is called—
(A) Policy
(B) Procedure
(C) Objective
(D) Budget

34. Theory ‘X’ and Theory ‘Y’ of Motivation was propounded by—
(A) Herzberg
(B) Maslow
(C) Elton Mayo
(D) McGregor

35. Direction involves—
(B) Physical factors
(B) Financial factors
(C) Human factors
(D) None of the above

36. Which is the oldest form of organisation ?
(A) Line
(B) Line and staff
(C) Functional
(D) Matrix

37. Decentralisation—
(A) Reduces burden of chief executives
(B) Increases burden of chief executives
(C) Does not effect burden
(D) None of the above

38. Planning is a—
(A) Primary function
(B) Secondary function
(C) Supplementary function
(D) None of the above

39. Planning function of management is performed by—
(A) Top management
(B) Middle management
(C) Lower management
(D) All of the above

40. MBO approach in management was introduced by—
(A) M. P. Follet
(B) Keith Davis
(C) Peter Drucker
(D) Oliver Sheldon

41. Which of the following is not an element of marketing mix ?
(A) Product
(B) Price
(C) Promotion
(D) Product life cycle

42. Market segmentation means—
(A) Grouping of buyers
(B) Grouping of sellers
(C) Grouping of middle men
(D) Grouping of producers

43. Standard costing is a technique of—
(A) Planning
(B) Organising
(C) Coordination
(D) Control

44. The principle of ‘Unity of Command’ was introduced by—
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) F. W. Taylor
(D) Urwick

45. The last step of communication process is—
(A) Controlling
(B) Implementation
(C) Correction
(D) Reaction

46. Strategy is used in—
(A) Military
(B) Business
(C) Industry
(D) All of the above

47. ‘3-D’ Model of leadership is propounded by—
(A) Likert Reinsis
(B) Kurt Levis
(C) William Ridin
(D) Henry Fayol

48. Personal selling includes—
(A) Selling
(B) Services to the customers
(C) Developing goodwill of the firm
(D) All of the above

49. The process of evaluating employees is called—
(A) Performance appraisal
(B) Recruitment
(C) Induction
(D) Job evaluation

50. Franking machine is used for—
(A) Specimen signature
(B) Postage stamps
(C) Arrival and departure timings
(D) None of the above

51. Grapevine communication is a type of—
(A) Formal communication
(B) Informal communication
(C) Horizontal communication
(D) Vertical communication

52. The ‘Principle of Exception’ states that management should—
(A) Check everything without exception
(B) Invariably take corrective action without exception
(C) Accept exceptions in emergencies
(D) Concentrate their attention on exceptions

53. Which of the following is not a component of ‘SWOT Analysis’ ?
(A) Threats
(B) Strengths
(C) Weaknesses
(D) Options

54. Organisational change is necessitated by—
(A) External environmental pressure
(B) Internal strengths and weaknesses
(C) Sequential changes
(D) All the above

55. Which management functions are closely related to ?
(A) Planning and Organising
(B) Organising and Staffing
(C) Staffing and Control
(D) Planning and Control

56. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I
(a) Planning
(b) Staffing
(c) Directing
(d) Controlling
List-II
1. Training
2. Forecasting
3. Evaluating
4. Motivating
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 3 4 2 1

57. Memorandum of Association contains—
(A) Objective clause
(B) Name clause
(C) Capital clause
(D) All of the above

58. ‘Table A’ is an alternative to—
(A) Prospectus
(B) Articles of Association
(C) Memorandum of Association
(D) None of the above

59. The ‘Doctrine of Indoor Management’ provides protection to the—
(A) Board of Directors
(B) Shareholders
(C) Managing Director
(D) Outsiders

60. By which of the following methods a Company Secretary can be removed from his post ?
(A) By passing a resolution in Board Meeting
(B) By order of Registrar of Companies
(C) By passing a resolution in Annual General Meeting
(D) None of the above

61. Dividend paid between two Annual General Meetings is known as—
(A) Final dividend
(B) Interim dividend
(C) Special dividend
(D) None of the above

62. In a Private Company there are restrictions regarding—
(A) Transfer of shares
(B) Issue of prospectus
(C) Number of members
(D) All of the above

63. The gap between two General Meetings of the Company should not be more than—
(A) 12 months
(B) 18 months
(C) 15 months
(D) 20 months

64. Statement containing details of items to be considered in a meeting is called—
(A) Agenda
(B) Minutes
(C) Resolution
(D) Notice

65. The minimum and maximum number of members in a Private Company is—
(A) 2 and 50
(B) 2 and 20
(C) 2 and 10
(D) None of the above

66. What is the maximum limit of remuneration for a whole time manager in a company ?
(A) 3% of net annual profit
(B) 5% of net annual profit
(C) 7% of net annual profit
(D) None of the above

67. Which among the following documents defines the relationship between a company and outsiders ?
(A) Memorandum of Association
(B) Articles of Association
(C) Prospectus
(D) None of the above

68. Registration is not essential in case of a—
(A) Company
(B) Co-operative organisation
(C) Co-operative Societies
(D) Business of Joint Hindu Family

69. The Meeting of Board of Directors must be called at least once—
(A) In four months
(B) In three months
(C) In two months
(D) In one month

70. The Secretary of a Company should file copies of Special Resolution passed at Extraordinary General Meeting to the Registrar of Companies within—
(A) 7 days
(B) 14 days
(C) 21 days
(D) 30 days

71. What is the quorum of General Meetings in the case of a Private Company ?
(A) 2 members
(B) 3 members
(C) 4 members
(D) 5 members

72. Which of these must hold a Statutory Meeting ?
(A) Public Limited Company
(B) Private Company
(C) Unlimited Company
(D) All of these

73. When three sugar mills combine, it is an example of—
(A) Vertical combination
(B) Horizontal combination
(C) Diagonal combination
(D) None of the above

74. The first electronic computer system was developed in—
(A) 1920
(B) 1940
(C) 1930
(D) 1950

75. An Index is—
(A) A filing system
(B) A photostat procedure
(C) The procedure to collect data
(D) An important help in filing

76. Indian Partnership Act was passed in the year—
(A) 1956
(B) 1936
(C) 1932
(D) 1930

77. According to the Partnership Act, the maximum number of partners in a banking firm may be—
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 4
(D) 20

78. Dissolution of Partnership takes place when—
(A) A partner misbehaves
(B) A partner becomes of unsound mind
(C) Business is running at a loss
(D) A partner dies

79. The existence of a Partnership Firm is—
(A) Separate from partners
(B) Not separate from partners
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

80. In which State the Mitakshara form of H.U.F. business does not apply ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Gujarat
(C) West Bengal
(D) Kerala

81. Letter of Credit is presented by—
(A) Exporter
(B) Importer
(C) Custom Officer
(D) Shipping Company

82. The Agreement of Partnership—
(A) Must be oral
(B) Must be in writing
(C) Can be either oral or in writing
(D) Must be in writing on a stamp paper

83. Export procedure begins with—
(A) Indent
(B) Shipping order
(C) Marine insurance
(D) None of these

84. ‘Self-help by mutual help’ is a feature of—
(A) Public enterprise
(B) Public corporation
(C) Co-operative society
(D) All of the above

85. In India private sector entered into the Life Insurance business in the year—
(A) 1995
(B) 1998
(C) 2000
(D) 2001

86. General Insurance Corporation of India was set up in—
(A) 1956
(B) 1972
(C) 1980
(D) 2000

87. ‘Salvage Charges’ is related to—
(A) Life Insurance
(B) Marine Insurance
(C) Fire Insurance
(D) None of the above

88. In ‘Life Insurance Contract’ the insurable interest is examined at the time of—
(A) Entering the contract
(B) Filing the claim
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Never

89. In connection with marine insurance the ‘Doctrine of Utmost Good Faith’ is based on the concept of—
(A) Disclosure
(B) Concealment
(C) Misrepresentation
(D) None of the above

90. Which statement is not true in respect of a Balance Sheet ?
(A) It is an account
(B) It is prepared every month
(C) It is prepared to check the mathematical accuracy
(D) All the above

91. A machinery is purchased for Rs. 3,00,000 and Rs. 50,000 is spent on its installation. Rs. 5,000 is spent on fuel. What will be the amount of capital expenditure ?
(A) Rs. 3,00,000
(B) Rs. 3,50,000
(C) Rs. 3,55,000
(D) None of these

92. Which of the following errors are not disclosed by Trial Balance ?
(A) Compensatory Errors
(B) Errors of Principle
(C) Errors of Omission
(D) All the three

93. A large amount spent on special advertisement is—
(A) Capital Expenditure
(B) Revenue Expenditure
(C) Revenue Loss
(D) Deferred Revenue Expenditure

94. Double Entry System was introduced in—
(A) America
(B) Japan
(C) India
(D) Italy

95. According to going concern concept a business entity is assumed to have—
(A) A long life
(B) A small life
(C) A very short life
(D) A definite life

96. The policy of ‘anticipate no profit and provide for all possible losses’ is followed due to—
(A) Convention of consistency
(B) Convention of conservation
(C) Convention of disclosure
(D) None of the above

97. Receipts and Payments Account is prepared by—
(A) Companies
(B) Banks
(C) Partnership firms
(D) Non-trading organizations

98. Examination of documents and vouchers is called—
(A) Physical verification
(B) Test checking
(C) Vouching
(D) None of the above

99. Internal Audit is done by—
(A) External Auditors
(B) Employees of the organisation
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

100. Audit Programme is prepared by—
(A) The Auditor
(B) The Company
(C) Internal Auditor
(D) Financial Controller

101. First Auditor of a Company is appointed by the—
(A) Shareholders
(B) Central Government
(C) Company Law Board
(D) Board of Directors

102. Which of the following is not qualified to be a Company Auditor ?
(A) A body corporate
(B) An employee of the company
(C) A person who is indebted to the company for an amount exceeding Rs. 1,000
(D) All of the above

103. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) Valuation is a part of verification
(B) Verification is a part of valuation
(C) Valuation has nothing to do with verification
(D) None of the above

104. Test checking refers to—
(A) Testing of accounting records
(B) Testing of honesty of employees
(C) Intensive checking of a select number of transactions
(D) Checking of all transactions recorded

105. Continuous audit is suitable for—
(A) Big institutions
(B) Small institutions
(C) General institutions
(D) None of the above

106. The function of an Auditor is—
(A) To examine arithmetical accuracy of accounts
(B) To detect and prevent errors
(C) To detect and prevent frauds
(D) All of the above

107. Audit is compulsory for—
(A) Sole Trader
(B) Partnership Firms
(C) Joint Stock Companies
(D) All of the above

108. Match List-I with List-II of the following and select the correct answer from answer codes given below—
List-I
(a) At cost price
(b) At market price
(c) Intrinsic value method
(d) Average profit method
List-II
1. Valuation of shares
2. Perishable goods
3. Raw material
4. Valuation of Goodwill
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 1 4 3 2

109. In the absence of Articles of Association, an Auditor should keep in mind—
(A) Prospectus
(B) Table ‘A’
(C) Memorandum of Association
(D) Legal Declaration

110. Who may recommend Special Audit of a Company ?
(A) Directors of the Company
(B) Shareholders of the Company
(C) Debentureholders of the Company
(D) Central Government

111. Internal check is a part of—
(A) Internal Audit
(B) Internal Control
(C) Annual Audit
(D) Standard Audit

112. Cost Audit Report is to be submitted to—
(A) The Company
(B) The Central Government with a copy to the Company
(C) The Central Government
(D) The Company Secretary

113. A company auditor addresses his report to—
(A) Board of Directors
(B) Members
(C) Managing Director
(D) Company Secretary

114. Which of the following Sections of the Companies’ Act 1956 relates to the maintenance of proper books of accounts ?
(A) Section-211
(B) Section-217
(C) Section-209
(D) Section-205

115. X and Y are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 4 : 3. They admit a new partner Z and new profit sharing ratio is 7 : 4 : 3. The sacrificing ratio between X and Y will be—
(A) Equal
(B) 4 : 3
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 1 : 2

116. Given :
Realised value of assets Rs. 60,000
Profit on Realisation Rs. 3,000
Book value of assets will be—
(A) Rs. 63,000
(B) Rs. 57,000
(C) Rs. 60,000
(D) Rs. 61,500

117. A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2. D is admitted for 1/10 share. The new ratio will be—
(A) 5 : 4 : 3 : 2
(B) 4 : 4 : 3 : 2
(C) 4 : 3 : 2 : 1
(D) None of the above

118. If actual average profit is Rs. 30,000 and normal rate of return is 12%, then capitalization value of the profits will be—
(A) Rs. 3,60,000
(B) Rs. 2,50,000
(C) Rs. 3,05,000
(D) None of the above

119. Under which Section of Companies’ Act an auditor has a right to participate and to speak in the General Meeting ?
(A) 231
(B) 229
(C) 226
(D) 224

120. New profit sharing ratio is calculated at the time of—
(A) Admission of a new partner
(B) Retirement of a partner
(C) Death of a partner
(D) All of the above

Answers1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (D)
31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (D) 40. (C)
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (B)
51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (D) 56. (C) 57. (D) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (A)
61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (A) 66. (B) 67. (A) 68. (D) 69. (B) 70. (D)
71. (A) 72. (A) 73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (D) 76. (C) 77. (A) 78. (D) 79. (B) 80. (C)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (A) 84. (C) 85. (C) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (A) 89. (A) 90. (D)
91. (B) 92. (D) 93. (D) 94. (D) 95. (A) 96. (B) 97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (B) 100. (A)
101. (D) 102. (D)103. (A) 104. (C) 105. (A) 106. (D) 107. (C) 108. (A) 109. (B) 110. (D)
111. (B) 112. (B) 113. (B) 114. (C) 115. (D) 116. (C) 117. (C) 118. (B) 119. (A) 120. (D)

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (J) (Pre.) Exam., 2009

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (J) (Pre.) Exam., 2009(Held on 7-3-2010)
PART–II
Law : Solved Paper


1. Under Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a Hindu can dispose of his interest in a Mitakshara Coparcenary property by—
(A) Will
(B) Gift
(C) Sale
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

2. Presumption that the younger survived the elder under Section 21 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is a—
(A) Presumption of fact
(B) Mixed presumption of fact and law
(C) Rebuttable presumption of law
(D) Irrebuttable presumption of law
Ans : (C)

3. Rule 2 under Section 10 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is a—
(A) Per capita rule
(B) Per stirpes
(C) Per stirpes per capita rule
(D) Rule of exclusion
Ans : (A)

4. A decree may be executed by—
(A) Tehsildar
(B) Collector
(C) District Judge
(D) Either by the court which passed it or to which it is sent
Ans : (D)

5. On which of the following maxim the doctrine of ‘Res Judicata’ is based ?
(A) Qui facit per alium facit per se
(B) Ex turpi causa non oritur actio
(C) Respondent superior
(D) Interest republica ut sit finish litium
Ans : (D)

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (J) (Pre.) Exam., 2009(Held on 7-3-2010)
PART–I
General Knowledge
: Solved Paper

1. How many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India ?
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 22
Ans : (D)

2. Article 340 of the Indian Constitution deals with—
(A) Backward Classes Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) Finance Commission
Ans : (A)

3. In which year ‘Advocate’s Welfare Fund Act’ was enacted by Parliament of India ?
(A) 1999
(B) 2001
(C) 2003
(D) 2008
Ans : (B)

4. In which one of the following cases it has been held that prohibition on sale of eggs within municipal area of Rishikesh is not violative of Article 19(1)g of the Constitution ?
(A) B. R. Enterprise Vs. State of U.P.
(B) Sreeniwas General Traders Vs. State of Uttarakhand
(C) Om Prakash Vs. State of U.P.
(D) C. K. Jain Vs. State of Uttaranchal
Ans : (C)

5. ‘Right to Information’ is defined under—
(A) Section 2(f) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(B) Section 2(j) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(C) Section 4 of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(D) Section 2(b) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
Ans : (B)

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam., 2008(Held on 9-3-2008)Public Administration : Solved Paper


1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below :—
List-I (District)
(a) Udham Singh Nagar
(b) Tehri Garhwal
(c) Chamoli
(d) Champawat
List-II (Headquarters)
1. Champawat
2. Gopeshwar
3. Rudrapur
4. New Tehri
5. Bagheswar
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 2 5 3 4
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 4 3 5 1

2. The person for the office of the Chief Secretary in a State is chosen :
1. from among the I.A.S. Officers.
2. by a Selection Board
3. by the Chief Minister
4. by the Union Home Minister.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 3 only

3. The functions of the Chief Secretary include :
(A) to exercise control over the whole Secretariat
(B) to advise the Chief Minister on all matters
(C) to act as a spokesman of the State Government
(D) All of the above

4. Which one of the following statements about Audit in India is not correct ?
(A) It is a means of legislative control
(B) It is part of internal control over administration
(C) C and A.G. heads its organization
(D) C and A.G’s powers are determined by the Parliament

5. Who of the following has said about the Planning Commission “…… The Planning Commission has, in some measures, earned the reputation of being a parallel Cabinet and, sometimes, a super cabinet” ?
(A) Ashok Chandra
(B) D.R. Gadgil
(C) K. Santhanam
(D) 1st Administrative Reforms Commission

6. The C and AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of :
(A) Municipal institutions
(B) State Governments
(C) Government Companies
(D) Central Government

7. Functions of the National Development Council include :
1. considering important issues of national security.
2. prescribing guidelines for preparation of the national plan.
3. assessing the resources required for implementation of the plan.
4. recommending measures necessary for achieving plan objectives.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

8. The Committee on subordinate legislation ensures that :
(A) the rules and orders do not have any intention to impose taxes
(B) legislation does not involve any expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
(C) jurisdiction of the judiciary is not barred
(D) there is no delay in laying the legislation before the house

9. The Union Executive consists of the :
1. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
2. President of India
3. Central Secretariat
4. Vice President
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

10. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian Administration ?
(A) Legacy of the Past
(B) Welfare and Liberal Administration
(C) Despotic Administration
(D) Decentralized Administration

11. Disciplinary Officer for personnel of Group ‘C’ and ‘D’ in the Central Government is :
(A) Secretary of the concerned Department
(B) President of India
(C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(D) Minister of the concerned Department

12. Which of the following organization are under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India ?
1. Central Vigilance Commission
2. Central Administrative Tribunal
3. Department of official language
4. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel National Police Academy.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4

13. Consider the following two statements :
Assertion (A) : UPSC is an independent organization.
Reason (R) : UPSC is a constitutional body.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

14. Given below are two statements :
Assertion (A) : Five Year Plans in India are approved by the National Development Council.
Reason (R) : Each and every State Chief Minister is the member of the Standing Committee of the National Development Council.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

15. Being the Principal Law Officer of the Government of India, the Attorney General
1. gives advice to the President of India on all important legal matters.
2. attend meetings of the Parliament on important issues.
3. votes in the Lok Sabha on important legal matters.
4. represents the government in the courts on very important legal matters.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All of the above

16. Given below are different stages in problem solving :
1. Collection of relevant information
2. Identification of the problem.
3. Analysis of the information.
4. Development of alternatives.
5. Evaluation of choices.
Select the correct sequences of the above from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 2, 1, 3, 4 and 5
(C) 4, 5, 2, 3 and 1
(D) 4, 1, 5, 3 and 2

17. Formal Communication usually flows in :
(A) six directions
(B) four directions
(C) three directions
(D) nine directions

18. Which one of the following is not correct among the assumptions made by a Theory ‘Y’ leader ?
(A) Expenditure of energy is undesirable.
(B) Self-direction and self-control is desirable.
(C) Self-actualization is a motivating force.
(D) Working conditions conducive for acceptance of responsibilities are desirable.

19. The book ‘Prismatic Society Revisited’ has been authored by :
(A) Robert A. Dahl
(B) Robert A. Merton
(C) Fred W. Riggs
(D) G.M. Gaus

20. Arrange the various phases of evolution of Public Administration in chronological order :
1. Politics–Administration Dichotomy
2. Crises of Identify.
3. Search for Universal Principles.
4. Era of Challenge.
5. Public Policy Perspective.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 2
(C) 1, 3, 4, 2 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 3

21. Which of the following are the British legacies ?
1. Planning Commission.
2. District Administration.
3. Civil Services.
4. Ministerial Resposibility.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4

22. “Public Administration is detailed and systematic application of law.”
The above definition has been given by :
(A) L. D. White
(B) Luther Gullick
(C) E.N. Gladden
(D) Woodrow Wilson

23. Which of the following are the three aspects of Science of Public Administration discussed mainly in Kautilya’s Arthashastra ?
1. Principles of Public Administration
2. Principles of Financial Administration
3. Machinery of Government
4. Personnel Management
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

24. Who of the following described recruitment as the “Corner stone of whole personnel administration” ?
(A) Glenn O. Stahl
(B) L. D. White
(C) F. A. Nigro
(D) None of the above

25. The President of India addresses his letter of resignation, when wanting to do so, to the :
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Vice-President
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Prime Minister

26. The Mayor of a City Corporation in Uttarakhand :
(A) is elected directly by people
(B) is elected from among themselves by Corporators
(C) is elected by its Executive Committee
(D) is the nominee of the majority party in the Corporation

27. A Directorate :
1. is office of the executive head of a department.
2. functions directly under the Minister.
3. performs line functions.
4. also acts as a staff agency.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

28. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Central Secretariat is a think tank and treasure house of vital information.
Reason (R) : The Secretariat carries out a comprehensive and detailed scrutiny of every issue.
Select correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

29. The four bases of organization as identified by Luther Gullick are :
(A) Planning, Organising, Coordinating, Controlling
(B) Objective, People, Plan, Action
(C) Plead, Persuade, Order, Punish
(D) Purpose, Process, Persons, Place

30. ‘Authority’ and ‘Responsibility’ are governed by the :
(A) Principle of coincidence
(B) Principle of correspondence
(C) Principle of compulsion
(D) Principle of co-ordination

31. ‘Span of Control’ depends upon
1. centralized system of authority
2. type of work to be supervised
3. competence of the supervisor
4. techniques of supervision
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

32. Hierarchy :
1. facilitates delegation of authority
2. establishes superior–subordinate relationships
3. acts as a channel of communication
4. facilitates operation of gang plank
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

33. A formal organization :
1. is a structure of authority
2. is a division of functions
3. consists of individuals
4. reflects social and psychological relationships
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

34. Given below are two statements :
Assertion (A) : The principle of ‘Unity of Command’ emphasizes upon one master.
Reason (R) : In complex government organizations ‘Unity of Command’ becomes easy. In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

35. Decentralization :
1. improves administrative efficiency
2. reduces stress of responsibilities at the headquarter.
3. provides for involvement of insiders in organizational functioning.
4. is responsible for cost-escalation.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

36. The traditional theory of Authority has been opposed by :
1. Max Weber
2. C.I. Bernard
3. H. Simon
4. Mooney and Reiley
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

37. The ‘Line’ agencies :
1. perform functions according to organizational objectives.
2. have authority to take decisions and enforce them.
3. involve insiders of the organization
4. keep outsiders away from the system.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

38. Which of the following statements about ‘Delegation of authority’ are correct ?
1. It should be made to an individual.
2. It should be properly planned.
3. It should be backed by adequate resources.
4. It can be conditional.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

39. Human Relations Theory of Organization focusses on the :
1. individual
2. physical structure
3. functional structure
4. social relationships
5. spirit of participation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 4 and 5
(D) 2, 3, 4 and 5

40. Weber’s bureaucratic model has been characterised by his critics as :
1. a machine theory
2. a closed system model
3. suitable for changing environment
4. suitable for creative jobs
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

41. Which of the following types of leadership were delineated by Max-Weber ?
1. Charismatic
2. Traditional
3. Religious
4. Legal-rational
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

42. Which one of the following is not an intrinsic factor of job satisfaction as per the Hygiene Theory of Motivation ?
(A) Achievement
(B) Advancement
(C) Opportunities for growth
(D) Job Security

43. Fredrick Herzbgerg’s Theory of Motivation has listed some elements which are related to job content. Their number is :
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10

44. Factors responsible for bounded rationality include :
1. dynamic nature of objectives
2. imperfect information
3. imcompetence for analysis
4. time constraints
5. personal values
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 4 and 5

45. Factors taken into consideration while using ‘motivation’ as a function of management include :
1. goal
2. physiological deficiency
3. psychological need
4. technique to be used
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

46. “A communication that cannot be understood can have no authority.” The above statement is attributed
to :
(A) Ordway Tead
(B) C.I. Bernard
(C) Millet
(D) Peter Drucker

47. The aspects of organizational communication include :
1. internal communication
2. external communication
3. inter-personal communication
4. intra-personal communication
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

48. Which one of the following is not a stage in Simon’s model of decision making ?
(A) Intelligence
(B) Design
(C) Choice
(D) Participation

49. Which one of the following as qualities of leadership, as mentioned by Barnard is correct ?
(A) Vitality and Endurance
(B) Decisiveness
(C) Persuasiveness and Responsibility
(D) All of the above

50. Which one of the following statements about Decision-making is not correct ?
(A) Every decision is based upon two premises
(B) A factual premise cannot be disproved
(C) A value premise can be tested
(D) Ends and means have their importance

51. Theory ‘Y’ is connected with :
(A) Democratic leadership style
(B) Autocratic leadership style
(C) Laissez-faire leadership style
(D) None of the above

52. Who of the following developed Contingency Theory of Leadership ?
(A) Fred E. Feidler
(B) Likert
(C) Simon
(D) Robert Dahl

53. Robert T. Goelembioski has considered as transitional incident to :
(A) Private Administration
(B) Public Administration
(C) Neo Public Administration
(D) New Public Administration

54. Who of the following did not criticise Politics-administration dichotomy of Woodrow Wilson ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Paul H. Appleby
(C) Marshall E. Dimock
(D) Nicholas Henry

55. Which one of the following statements is correct about New Public Administration ?
(A) It believes in Science of Public Administration
(B) It focusses on Social Administration
(C) It gives priority to the study of structural aspect of organization
(D) It believes in collective decision-making

56. Third phase (1938–1947) of the development of Public Administration is marked by :
1. emphasis on the practical study of Public Administration.
2. emphasis on human behaviour in an organization.
3. doubt regarding non-universality of the principles of Public Administration.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) only 3
(D) 2 and 3

57. Who of the following differentiated Politics and Administration by saying that ‘Politics has to do policies or expression of the State will’ and ‘Administration has to do with the execution of the policies’ ?
(A) Peter Self
(B) Woodrow Wilson
(C) Frank Goodnow
(D) Dwight Waldo

58. New Public Administration lays emphasis on :
(A) relevance, values, democracy and change
(B) relevance, values, equity and change
(C) relevance, values, efficiency and change
(D) relevance, efficiency, equity and change

59. ‘Public Administration is the Art and Science of Management as applied to affairs of the State.’ Who of the following said this ?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) L.D. White
(C) Frank Marini
(D) Dwight Waldo

60. “Public Administration is detailed and systematic execution of law.” Who of the following has said this ?
(A) L.D. White
(B) Luther Gullick
(C) E.N. Gladden
(D) Woodrow Wilson

61. About the significance of Public Administration who of the following said “The Administrative process is universal” ?
(A) Ordway Tead
(B) Henri Fayol
(C) H. Finer
(D) D. Waldo

62. “Public Administration is characterized by red-tape while Private Administration is free from it.” The statement was made by :
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Paul H. Appleby
(C) Peter Drucker
(D) Josia Stamp

63. The Minnobrook Conference held in 1988 laid emphasis on :
1. Leadership
2. Constitutional and Legal perspective
3. Policy perspective
4. Social equity and change
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

64. The Conference on New Public Administration in 1960s was held under the patronage of :
(A) Robert T. Golembiewaski
(B) Frank Marini
(C) Fredrickson
(D) Dwight Waldo

65. Consider the following :
Assertion (A) : Comparative Public Administration is crosscultural and cross-national in character.
Reason (R) : Its goal became unattainable.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
Correct :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

66. Ecological approach undertakes studies of :
1. dynamics of interaction
2. political environment
3. social realities
4. influence of administrative system
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

67. Which of the following decisionmaking approach is usually advocated by the Policy makers for urban community development in India ?
(A) Mixed approach
(B) Public choice approach
(C) Contingency approach
(D) Participative approach

68. Who of the following scholar/scholars point out that bureaucratic responsibility has to be seen in terms of accountability and ethical behaviour ?
(A) Fesler and Kettle
(B) Rosen
(C) Romzek and Dubnick
(D) Mohit Bhattacharya

69. Civil Servants are trained through :
1. foundation courses
2. on the job programmes
3. field exposures
4. refresher programmes
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

70. The Joint Consultative Machinery in India was established on the recommendation of :
(A) First Pay Commission
(B) Second Pay Commission
(C) Third Pay Commission
(D) Fourth Pay Commission

71. Which one of the following reports laid down the traditional concept of Civil Service neutrality in Britain ?
(A) Masterman Committee Report
(B) Hoover Commission Report
(C) Northcote-Trevelyan Report
(D) Fulton Committee Report

72. The country which practices position classification in Civil Service is :
(A) U.K.
(B) U.S.A.
(C) France
(D) Germany

73. The final work of the Union Public Service Commission in recruitment process is :
(A) Selection
(B) Appointment
(C) Certification
(D) Placement

74. Which one of the following countries permits the right to strike to Civil Servants ?
(A) U.K.
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) U.S.A.

75. Which one of the following illustrates the nature of traditional concept of Civil Service Neutrality ?
(A) Committed
(B) Positive minded
(C) Non-Partisan
(D) Impartial

76. Which one of the following Committee/Commission was associated during British rule with the Civil Services in India ?
(A) Wheeler Commission
(B) Maxwell Committee
(C) Risley Commission
(D) Islington Commission

77. Which of the following statements about Neutrality of Civil Service are correct ?
1. The Civil servants should remain non-political.
2. It developed as a tradition in the U.S.A.
3. The demand for committed bureaucracy has created confusion.
4. The developing countries bureaucracy remained depoliticised.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

78. The advantages of rank classification include :
1. it introduces an element of flexibility.
2. it is more suitable for generalist cadre.
3. it helps in applying the principle of equal pay for equal work.
4. it facilitates matching job requirements with incumbents’s qualifications.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

79. Which one of the following about position classification is not correct ?
(A) It is also known as duties classification.
(B) It is concerned with the person holding the position.
(C) Position acts as the basic unit.
(D) It helps in developing common practices.

80. The correct sequence of the process adopted in recruitment is :
(A) Advertisement, Selection, Appointment, Probation
(B) Advertisement, Selection, Probation, Training.
(C) Advertisement, Appointment, Training, Probation.
(D) Advertisement, Selection, Posting, Probation.

81. The Separation of Accounts and Audit took place in India in the year :
(A) 1950
(B) 1961
(C) 1976
(D) 1990

82. Which one of the following about Accounts is not correct ?
(A) They are statements of facts relating to money.
(B) They are recored to show transactions.
(C) They reveal the financial condition of the organisation.
(D) The cannot be manipulated.

83. Preparation of performance budget was introduced in India on the recommendation of :
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Appleby Report
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(D) Administrative Reforms Commission

84. To enhance legislative literacy and administrative responsibility, the budget system should accept :
(A) Zero Based Budgeting
(B) P.P.B.S.
(C) Performance Budgeting
(D) Professional Scrutiny by experts

85. Which one of the following statements about Budget is not correct ?
(A) It is a policy document
(B) It is merely a tool of resource mobilisation
(C) It is a tool of planning and control
(D) It is a statement of income and expenditure

86. Which one of the following is not a part of the Execution of Budget ?
(A) Release of grants
(B) Feedback on expenditure
(C) Audit of expenditure
(D) Reappropriation, when required

87. Audit :
1. is a means of legislative control.
2. is usually regulatory in nature.
3. is concerned with the propriety of expenditure.
4. can be performance related.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

88. The stages involved in the enactment of the Budget include :
1. Presentation
2. Voting on demands for grants
3. General discussion
4. Passing of Financial Bills
5. Passing of Appropriation Bill
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above five stages ?
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 1, 3, 2, 5 and 4
(C) 1, 3, 4, 2 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 5, 4 and 3

89. Non-votable items of expenditure, by the Parliament, include :
1. emoluments and allowances of the President.
2. emoluments and allowances of Vice-President.
3. salary and allowances of C and A.G.
4. salary and allowances of the Chief Vigilance Commissioner Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

90. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year :
(A) 1921
(B) 1922
(C) 1925
(D) 1926

91. In the process of passing the budget, which one of the following is not in the purview of the Legislature?
(A) Give assent to the demand
(B) Reduce the demand
(C) Refuse the demand
(D) Increase and demand

92. The studies of Comparative Public Administration came to decline because :
(A) they were involved in trivialities
(B) they exhibited arrogance of developed countries
(C) they indulged in comparison of cultures
(D) they were over shadowed by Fred Riggs

93. Which one of the following is not included in the types of leadership, as distinguished by M.P. Follett ?
(A) Leadership of position
(B) Leadership of personality
(C) Leadership of learning
(D) Leadership of function

94. The Comparative Administration Group (CAG) in U.S.A. was formed in the year :
(A) 1959
(B) 1960
(C) 1961
(D) 1962

95. Advantages of ‘Right to Information’ as a means of Citizens’ control over administration include :
1. Administration becomes more accountable to people.
2. It increases the gap between administration and people.
3. It reduces chances of abuse of authority.
4. It reduces scope for corruption in administration.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

96. Who of the following said :
‘I always consider the question time in the House is one of the finest examples of Democracy ?’
(A) E. Attlee
(B) W. Wilson
(C) Churchill
(D) Chamberlin

97. Which one of the following is the tool of Executive Control over Public Administration ?
(A) Civil Service Code
(B) Budget
(C) Hierarchical system
(D) All of the above

98. The subject of ‘Ensuring transparency and Right to Information’ was included in the agenda of the Chief Ministers’ Conference in the year :
(A) 1996
(B) 1997
(C) 1998
(D) 2002

99. The mechanisms for citizen’s control over administration include :
1. Ombudsman system
2. Central Vigilance Commission
3. General elections
4. Pressure Groups
5. Right to Information
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(D) 2, 3, 4 and 5

100. Administrative organisations are mainly responsible to :
1. Legislature
2. Judiciary
3. Citizens
4. Media
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4

101. Which one of the following is the example of executive control over administration ?
(A) Rules of financial transactions framed by Finance ministry for agencies responsible for expenditure
(B) Issue of ordinance by the President of India
(C) Audit by C and G
(D) Approval of Budget proposals by the President of India.

102. Which one of the following is under the control of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions ?
(A) National Academy of Administration, Mussoorie
(B) Central Vigilance Commission
(C) Joint Consultative Machinery
(D) All the above

103. What is the number of membership including President of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation of Parliament ?
(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 22
(D) 30

104. The rules and regulations framed by the administrative authorities can be declared illegal by the courts :
(A) If they violate the limitation inherent in the parent Act
(B) If they violate the provisions of the constitution
(C) If the parent Act violates the provisions of the constitution
(D) In all above conditions

105. The corruption has increased manifold because :
1. There is a close nexus among the politicians, bureaucrates and criminals.
2. The cost of getting scotfree is very high.
3. Reduced fear of punishment.
4. Involvement of higher officials in the corruption.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the above

106. The tools of legislative control over administration are :
1. debates and discussions in the House.
2. censure motion against the government.
3. no confidence motion against the government.
4. consideration and passage of budget by the House.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All of the above

107. Which one of the following statements about the Cabinet Secretary is not correct ?
(A) He is head of the Civil Service
(B) He interacts directly with the bureaucracy in the ministries
(C) He acts as a deity in the annual conference of Chief Secretaries
(D) He presides over the meeting of Secretaries in the Central Government

108. Under the Indian Constitution, the CAG is :
(A) responsible only to the Executive head
(B) responsible to both Parliament and Executive
(C) responsible only to Parliament
(D) independent of both Parliament and the Executive

109. Which of the following is/are not mentioned in the Constitution of India ?
1. Council of Ministers
2. Collective responsibility
3. Resignation of Ministers
4. Office of the Deputy Prime Minister
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 3

110. Assessment of the implementation of national plan from time to time is the function of :
(A) Programme Evaluation Organisation
(B) National Sample Survey Organisation
(C) Union Finance Commission
(D) Union Ministry of Programme Implementation

111. A large number of cases against officials in the courts pertain to :
(A) error of procedure
(B) lack of jurisdiction
(C) error of facts
(D) abuse of discretion

112. Which of the following organization in the centre basically operate as staff agencies ?
1. Ministry of Finance
2. Union Public Service Commission
3. Directorate General of supplies and Disposal
4. Planning Commission of India.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4

113. Comptroller and Auditor General of India :
1. is appointed by the President
2. submits his report to the Parliament
3. controls the financial system of the country
4. upholds the Constitution in respect of financial administration
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

114. Which of the following about President of India are correct ?
1. He/She should not be a member of the Parliament.
2. He/She is a constituent part of Parliament.
3. He/She should be eligible for election as a Lok Sabha member.
4. He/She is directly elected by the people.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

115. The Civil Service in India :
1. is governed by the norm of anonymity.
2. is not accountable to the Parliament.
3. is protected by the Minister concerned in all kinds of acts.
4. remains accountable to the Minister concerned.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four

116. The relationship between political executive and permanent executive is based on :
(A) ability of Minister
(B) capability of Civil Servant
(C) mutual respect and confidence between Ministers and Civil Servants
(D) All of the above

117. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A) : The Constitution authorises the Parliament to create a new All-India Service.
Reason (R) : Rajya Sabha takes a decision on the basis of recommendation of Lok Sabha in this regard.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

118. The system of open competition as the method of recruitment to Indian Civil Services was introduced
by the :
(A) Charter Act of 1853
(B) Charter Act of 1833
(C) Regulatory Act of 1773
(D) Charter Act of 1754

119. Which of the following departments in the Uttarakhand Government have a Directorate under it ?
1. Education
2. Health
3. Home
4. Agriculture
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

120. The Police force of a district maintains law and order under the general supervision of :
(A) Home Minister of the State
(B) Law Minister of the State
(C) Collector and Magistrate of the District
(D) S.P. of the district

Answers :
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (D)
6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (*) All the options given in the question are correct. The committee on subordinate legislation performs all the four function. It appears that the question is incomplete as the ‘codes’ are not given below.
9. (A) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (C)
16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (C) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (B)
26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (A) 29. (D) 30. (B) 31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (A)
36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (A) 41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (C)
46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (C) 51. (A) 52. (A) 53. (D) 54. (A) 55. (B)
56. (D) 57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (D) 65. (B)
66. (B) 67. (D) 68. (D) 69. (D) 70. (B) 71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D)
76. (D) 77. (B) 78. (A) 79. (B) 80. (A) 81. (C) 82. (D) 83. (D) 84. (C) 85. (B)
86. (C) 87. (D) 88. (B) 89. (B) 90. (A) 91. (D) 92. (B) 93. (C) 94. (B) 95. (C)
96. (A) 97. (A) 98. (B) 99. (C) 100. (A) 101. (A) 102. (A) 103. (B) 104. (D) 105. (C)
106. (D) 107. (B) 108. (C) 109. (C) 110. (A) 111. (D) 112. (C) 113. (C) 114. (B) 115. (C)
116. (C) 117. (C) 118. (A) 119. (D) 120. (C)